ac_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'A resistor on an AC supply has a power of 2kW when a r.m.s. voltage of 230V is put across it. What is the r.m.s current through the resistor? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'6.4A ','optionB':'8.7A T ','optionC':'2.9A ','optionD':'4.3A '},{'text':'Why is it necessary to use root mean squared averages rather than a normal mean when dealing with AC currents? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The r.m.s. gives a more accurate value for the mean ','optionB':'It is easier to work out r.m.s. values ','optionC':'They are the same except that r.m.s is always positive ','optionD':'The normal average is always zero '},{'text':'A resistor is connected in series to an AC supply. The peak voltage across the resistor is 11V and the peak current is 2A. Find the resistance of the resistor. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'6.5 Ohm ','optionB':'5.5 Ohm T ','optionC':'3.5 Ohm ','optionD':'4.5 Ohm '},{'text':'It is written on an AC supply that it produces an r.m.s voltage of 5V and an r.m.s current of 3A. What is the power produced by this AC supply? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'30W ','optionB':'27W ','optionC':'24W ','optionD':'15W T '},{'text':'It is written on an AC supply that it produces an r.m.s voltage of 5V and an r.m.s current of 3A. What is the peak current value for the AC supply? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'5.07A ','optionB':'4.24A T ','optionC':'2.63A ','optionD':'3.91A '},{'text':'A resistor, of resistance 4k Ohm, is connected to an AC voltage source. The largest voltage observed across the resistor is 14V. What is the power being dissipated by resistor? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.0749W ','optionB':'0.0971W ','optionC':'0.0245W T ','optionD':'0.0426W '},{'text':'On an oscilloscope it is measured that there are 7 oscillations in a time period of 35ms. What is the frequency of the wave? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'250Hz ','optionB':'150Hz ','optionC':'200Hz T ','optionD':'100Hz '},{'text':'A resistor on an AC supply has a power of 2kW when a r.m.s. voltage of 230V is put across it. What is its resistance? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'39 Ohms ','optionB':'17 Ohms ','optionC':'26 Ohms T ','optionD':'5 Ohms'},]


capacitors_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Which of the following is the correct description of a capacitor? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'A highly conducting element ','optionB':'A highly insulating element ','optionC':'Wire wound into a coil ','optionD':'Two parallel conducting plates separated by a dielectric '},{'text':'A fully charged capacitor (of capacitance 70 x 10^-6 F) stores 3.5 x 10^-4 C of charge. It is then connected to a resistor in series and allowed to discharge. At the moment the discharge begins, what is the potential difference across the resistor? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'12 V ','optionB':'-5 V T ','optionC':'5 V ','optionD':'-12 V '},{'text':'A capacitor connected in series with a resistor is charged by a battery of potential difference 10 V. When the capacitor is fully charged, what is the potential difference across the resistor? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'6 V ','optionB':'12 V ','optionC':'12/e V ','optionD':'0V T '},{'text':'Which of the following is the correct definition of the current that initially flows from a discharging capacitor which held charge Q with capacitance C, and flows into a circuit of resistance R? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'I = QCR ','optionB':'I = 1/QCR ','optionC':'I = Q/CR T ','optionD':'I = QC/R '},{'text':'Which of the following statements about a capacitor with a capacitance of one farad is correct? The capacitor has ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'one Amp of current through the capacitor for every Coulomb of stored charge ','optionB':'one Coulomb of charge stored for every Amp flowing through the capacitor ','optionC':'one volt of potential difference across the capacitor for every Amp of current through it ','optionD':'separated one coulomb of charge for every volt applied across the capacitor T '},{'text':'A capacitor is charged by being connected to a battery with a given voltage, but does not continue charging indefinitely. At what point does a capacitor in this situation stop charging? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'When the voltage across the capacitor is zero ','optionB':'When the voltage across the capacitor equals the potential difference of the battery T ','optionC':'When the capacitance of the battery drops to zero ','optionD':'When the charge stored on the capacitor becomes infinite '},{'text':'A capacitor (capacitance 4x10^-5 F) discharges over 0.2 s with an average power of 50 W. What was the potential difference across the capacitor before discharge? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'707 V A ','optionB':'301 V ','optionC':'404 V ','optionD':'101 V '},{'text':'A capacitor is discharged in series with a resistor of resistance 8 Ohm . The discharge current drops to 1/e of its initial value in 4 ms. What is the value of the capacitors capacitance? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.02 mF ','optionB':'2 mF ','optionC':'40 mF ','optionD':'0.5 mF T '},{'text':'A capacitor is fully charged using a potential difference of 50 V, until it contains 2 mC of charge. It then discharges over a period of 0.4 s. What is the average power transmitted? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1 W ','optionB':'125 mW T ','optionC':'63 mW ','optionD':'250 mW '},{'text':'Which of the following is the correct expression of the energy stored by a capacitor which has a stored charge Q, capacitance C and has a potential V applied across it? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'E = (1/2)QV T ','optionB':'E = (1/2)Q^2V ','optionC':'E = (1/2)Q/V ','optionD':'E = (1/2)CV^2 '},{'text':'Which of the following statements about how a capacitor stores energy is correct? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'A capacitor stores energy by requiring a power source to do work moving electrical charges against a potential difference across the capacitor ','optionB':'A capacitor stores energy by trapping electrons in a negative potential gradient ','optionC':'A capacitor stores energy by trapping electrons in a negative potential gradient ','optionD':'A capacitor stores energy by converting electrical current to a magnetic field '},{'text':'Which of the following is the correct equation describing the current I discharging from a capacitor-resistor system with time constant T and initial current I0 ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'I = I0 e^-t/T T ','optionB':'I = I0 e^t/T ','optionC':'I = -I0t/T ','optionD':'I = I0t/T '},{'text':'A capacitor with capacitance 1x10^-5 F is charged to a potential difference of 12 V and then discharged through a 100 k Ohm resistor. How long is it before the potential difference across the capacitor is 1 V? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'6.8 s ','optionB':'2.5 s T ','optionC':'1.2 s ','optionD':'0.78 s '},{'text':'Which of the following is the correct definition of the time constant of a capacitor discharging in series with a resistor? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The time taken for the voltage across the resistor to go to zero ','optionB':'The time taken for the discharge current to drop to 1/e of its original value T ','optionC':'The time taken for the voltage across the capacitor to go to zero ','optionD':'The time taken for current to start flowing through the resistor '},{'text':'A capacitor is charged by being connected to a battery with a given voltage, but does not continue charging indefinitely. At what point does a capacitor in this situation stop charging? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'When the voltage across the capacitor is zero ','optionB':'When the capacitance of the battery drops to zero ','optionC':'When the voltage across the capacitor equals the potential difference of the battery T ','optionD':'When the charge stored on the capacitor becomes infinite '},{'text':'A capacitor used to store charge in an electrical circuit has a capacitance of 470 mF and can be charged to a potential of 30 V. How much energy is stored by the capacitor when it is fully charged? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'211.5 J T ','optionB':'76.5 J ','optionC':'673.5 J ','optionD':'253.5 J '},{'text':'A capacitor of capacitance 5 microfarads is fully charged when it has 30 millicoulombs of charge stored on it. At what voltage does this occur? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'15 V ','optionB':'3 V ','optionC':'1.5 kV ','optionD':'6 kV T '},{'text':'A capacitor is charged by a potential difference of 10 V. If the energy stored in the capacitor is 4 mJ, what is the value of its capacitance? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'8x10-^5 F T ','optionB':'2x10-^6 F ','optionC':'4x10-^4 F ','optionD':'6x10-^7 F '},{'text':'A capacitor is used in an electrical circuit. If 150 J of energy is stored when 6 kV of voltage is applied to the capacitor, how much charge is stored? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'900 mC ','optionB':'8 mC ','optionC':'50 mC T ','optionD':'650 mC '},{'text':'A capacitor is discharged in series with a resistor of resistance 8 Ohm. The discharge current drops to 1/e of its initial value in 4 ms. What is the value of the capacitors capacitance? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2 mF ','optionB':'0.5 mF T ','optionC':'0.02 mF ','optionD':'40 mF '},{'text':'A capacitor is connected in series to a resistor of resistance 50 Ohm and is allowed to discharge. If the capacitor is initially charged to 0.2 mC, and the initial discharge current is 2 A, what is the capacitance of the capacitor? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'8x10^-4 F ','optionB':'1x10^-5 F ','optionC':'4x10-7 F ','optionD':'2x10^-6 F T '},{'text':'A capacitor of time constant 0.2 s discharges into a circuit. How long does the capacitor have to discharge for to make the initial current drop to 1/e^3 of its initial value? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.008 s ','optionB':'0.6 s T ','optionC':'0.8 s ','optionD':'0.006 s '},{'text':'A capacitor is labelled: 10mF 2V. What is the maximum charge that can be stored on the capacitor? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.6 x 10^-19 C ','optionB':'2 x 10^-2 C T ','optionC':'1.2 x 10^-5 C ','optionD':'5 x 10^-3 C '},{'text':'Which of the following is the correct definition of the time constant t of a capacitor of capacitance C connected in series with a resistor of resistance R, with a voltage V applied? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'T = RC T ','optionB':'T = RV ','optionC':'T = R/C ','optionD':'T = VC '},{'text':'A capacitor and a resistor are connected together in a circuit without any other components, including a power source. Which of the following statements about the potential difference across the components is correct while the capacitor is discharging? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The potential difference across the capacitor is equal to the potential difference across the resistor ','optionB':'The potential difference across both the capacitor and the resistor is infinite ','optionC':'The potential difference across both the capacitor and the resistor is zero ','optionD':'The potential difference across the capacitor is equal and opposite in sign to the potential difference across the resistor T '},{'text':'A capacitor storing 8 x 10^-6 C of charge with a capacitance of 2 mF discharges into a circuit of resistance 35 Ohm. What is the initial current which flows from this discharge? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'68.3 mA ','optionB':'1.9 A ','optionC':'2.3 mA ','optionD':'0.1 mA T '},{'text':'A capacitor is fully charged when it holds 1 millicoulomb of charge, and has a capacitance of 2 microfarads. What voltage is applied to the capacitor when this occurs? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'500 V T ','optionB':'15 V ','optionC':'2 kV ','optionD':'0.2 V '},{'text':'What is the name of the insulating material typically found between the two plates of a capacitor? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The difarad ','optionB':'The parafarad ','optionC':'The dielectric T ','optionD':'The paraelectric '},{'text':'Which of the following statements is the correct definition of capacitance? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The charge stored by a capacitor multiplied by the potential difference across it ','optionB':'The voltage across a capacitor, independent of the charge stored ','optionC':'The charge stored by a capacitor, per unit of potential difference applied across it T ','optionD':'The voltage across a capacitor, per unit of charge stored in it '},{'text':'Which of the following statements linking the capacitance C, voltage applied V, and charge Q stored on a capacitor is correct? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'C = QV ','optionB':'C = Q/V T ','optionC':'V = C/Q ','optionD':'V = QC '},{'text':'A capacitor of capacitance 650 nF is connected in series to a resistor of resistance 2 k. What is the time constant of the circuit? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'85.6 ms ','optionB':'0.7 ms ','optionC':'1.3 ms T ','optionD':'6.5 ms'},]


charge_and_current_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'In any circuit the total current going into a junction has to be the same as the total coming out. What conservation law is this due to? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Charge T ','optionB':'Energy ','optionC':'Spin ','optionD':'Momentum '},{'text':'A total charge of 20C passes a point at a constant rate over a time of 5s. What would be the reading on an ammeter at that point? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'4A T ','optionB':'2A ','optionC':'3A ','optionD':'5A '},{'text':'A resistor (3kOhms) has a current passing through it of 1.67mA. How many electrons pass through the resistor in a period of half an hour? (Elementary charge = 1.60x10^-19 C) ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.7x10^19 ','optionB':'2.2x10^19 ','optionC':'2.0x10^19 ','optionD':'1.9x10^19 T '},{'text':'What is the unit of electrical current? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Ampere T ','optionB':'Electron volt ','optionC':'Volt ','optionD':'Coulomb '},{'text':'In metals (and graphite) what is it that carries electrical current? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Photons ','optionB':'Electrons T ','optionC':'Ions ','optionD':'Atoms '},{'text':'A beam of electrons has a current of 5.6mA. How many electrons flow through the beam in 5 minutes? (Elementary charge = 1.60x10^-19 C) ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.81x10^19 ','optionB':'1.05x10^19 T ','optionC':'1.54x10^19 ','optionD':'1.23x10^19 '},{'text':'Rate of flow of electric charge is ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'electric current T ','optionB':'emf ','optionC':'resistance ','optionD':'voltage '},{'text':'If a current of 1 A passes through a point in 1 s then charge passes that point is ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2C ','optionB':'3C ','optionC':'1C T ','optionD':'6C'},]


circular_motion_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'How many radians are there in a complete circle? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'pi ','optionB':'2 ','optionC':'2 pi ','optionD':'4 pi '},{'text':'A circular saw of radius 0.5m rotates at a speed of 10,000 revolutions per minute. What is the linear speed of a tooth on the edge of the saw? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'31.4 m/s ','optionB':'523 m/s T ','optionC':'31.4 km/s ','optionD':'523 km/s '},{'text':'A child sits on the edge of a roundabout of radius 2m. If the roundabout makes one full revolution every 3 seconds, what is the childs linear speed relative to the ground? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'6 pi m/s ','optionB':'4 pi / 3 m/s T ','optionC':'12 pi m/s ','optionD':'2 pi / 3 m/s '},{'text':'What does the word centripetal mean? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Towards the centre T ','optionB':'Away from the centre ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'A womens Olympic hammer has a mass of 4 kilos and is approximately 1 metre long. If her arms are also 1m long, and the hammer is spun around at a speed of 5 m/s, what force is required to keep the hammer in her hands? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'10N ','optionB':'20N ','optionC':'100N ','optionD':'50N '},{'text':'A huge spaceship full of aliens from Mars appears near the Earth. The clever Martians have made the spaceship constantly rotate so that they experience Mars surface gravity on the outer edge of the spaceship. If the spaceship has a radius of 100m and is spinning at a rate of 0.193 radians per second, what is the surface gravity of Mars? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.0373 metres per second squared ','optionB':'3.72 metres per second squared T ','optionC':'5.86 metres per second squared ','optionD':'2.14 metres per second squared '},{'text':'If the Earth has a radius of roughly 6,400 km, what is the linear speed at the equator due to the Earths rotation about its axis? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'11170 m/s ','optionB':'0.465 m/s ','optionC':'27925 m/s ','optionD':'465 m/s T '},{'text':'A ball is on the end of a piece of string, and is spun around very quickly in a circle. If the string were to suddenly snap, in which direction would the ball go at first? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Directly away from the circle ','optionB':'In a circular path ','optionC':'On a tangent to the circle of its orbit T ','optionD':'Downwards under gravity '},{'text':'If the Earth takes 1 year, or 365 days, to orbit around the sun, then what is its angular speed about the sun? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'3.17 x 10^-8 radians per second ','optionB':'3.5 x 10^-6 radians per second ','optionC':'1.99 x 10^-7 radians per second T ','optionD':'1.27 x 10^-5 radians per second '},{'text':'A rope of length 2 metres can withstand a tension of 100N before it snaps. If you attach a 5kg weight to this rope and start it spinning around you, what is the greatest linear speed that you can make the weight move with before the rope snaps? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'12.5 m/s ','optionB':'4.89 m/s ','optionC':'6.32 m/s T ','optionD':'50.1 m/s '},{'text':'If a body has a rotational speed f what is its angular speed w ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'w = 2.pi/f ','optionB':'w = pi/f ','optionC':'w = 2.pi.f T ','optionD':'w = pi.f '},{'text':'During his record-breaking jump from a balloon in the stratosphere in 2012, daredevil Felix Baumgartner started to spin uncontrollably. Experts were worried that he might spin so fast that he would lose consciousness and not open his parachute. Fortunately however this didnt happen and he landed safely! If loss of consciousness occurs at 9g (which you can assume to be 90 metres per second squared) and Felix Baumgartners head was 1m from the axis of rotation, how many times would he have to spin per second to lose consciousness? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'14.3 times per second ','optionB':'3 times per second ','optionC':'1.5 times per second T ','optionD':'0.8 times per second'},]


cosmology_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Define a a light year. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The time it takes for light to travel 1 million kilometres ','optionB':'The distance to the nearest galaxy ','optionC':'The distance light travels in one year T ','optionD':'None of the above '},{'text':'The Doppler effect is given by which equation? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'E=mc^2 ','optionB':'delta lamda/lamda= v/c T ','optionC':'v=f lamda ','optionD':'lamda max T = constant '},{'text':'At what mass would a white dwarf be on its way to becoming a supernova? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'<0.1 solar mass ','optionB':'<1 solar mass ','optionC':'1 solar mass ','optionD':'1.4 solar mass T '},{'text':'How would you estimate the age of the Universe? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1 divided by Hubbles constant T ','optionB':'The speed of light times Hubbles constant ','optionC':'1 divided by the speed of light ','optionD':'2 raised to the power of Hubbles constant '},{'text':'In the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram, how would you classify the group of stars in the bottom left, underneath the main sequence? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Red dwarfs ','optionB':'Red giants ','optionC':'Black dwarfs ','optionD':'White dwarfs T '},{'text':'Assuming that a star is a black body, what is Stefans Law? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'P=sigma+A+T^4 ','optionB':'P=sigma A T ','optionC':'P=sigma A T^4 T ','optionD':'P=(sigma A) / T '},{'text':'What is Wiens Displacement Law? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'lamda max T = constant T ','optionB':'m - M = 5 log (d/10) ','optionC':'m-M=-2.5*log(b) ','optionD':'P = sigma A T^4 '},{'text':'What is Hubbles Law? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'v=H d T ','optionB':'v=f lamda ','optionC':'z=-v/c ','optionD':'v=H/d '},{'text':'When a star is forming, what is the most important factor in determining the type of star it will become? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Its constituents ','optionB':'Its brightness ','optionC':'Its size ','optionD':'Its mass T '},{'text':'When white light is passed through cool gases, the spectra observed is called ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'line spectra ','optionB':'continuous spectra ','optionC':'emission line spectra ','optionD':'absorption line spectra T'},]


density_quiz_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Select the statement that displays correctly the equation and S.I. units for density. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'p = m * V. Units: [kg m^3] ','optionB':'p = m * V. Units: [kg m^-3] ','optionC':'p = m / V. Units: [kg m^3] ','optionD':'p = m / V. Units: [kg m^-3] T '},{'text':'Density is defined as mass per unit volume. Select the correct definition of unit volume when using S.I units.  ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Unit volume means 10 S.I unit. Therefore a unit volume means 10 cm^3. ','optionB':'Unit volume means 1 S.I unit. Therefore a unit volume means 1 m^3. ','optionC':'Unit volume means 1 S.I unit. Therefore a unit volume means 1 cm^3. ','optionD':'Unit volume means 10 S.I unit. Therefore a unit volume means 10 m^3. '},{'text':'Two 1 m^3 boxes (box A and box B) are standing side by side. Box A is filled with gold. Box B is filled with candyfloss. Select the correct statement: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Box A has a lower density than Box B because it has less mass per unit volume ','optionB':'Box B has a lower density than Box A because it has more mass per unit volume ','optionC':'Box A has a higher density than Box B because it has more mass per unit volume T ','optionD':'Both boxes have the same density '},{'text':'Two light boxes (box A and box B) are standing side by side. Box A has a volume of 1 m^3. Box B has a volume of 10 m3. Box A is filled with water and has a total mass of 1000 kg. Box B is filled with water and has a total mass of 10x103 kg. Select the correct statement: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Box A has a lower density than Box B because it has less mass per unit volume ','optionB':'Box B has a lower density than Box A because it has more mass per unit volume ','optionC':'Box A has a higher density than Box B because it has more mass per unit volume ','optionD':'Both boxes have the same density T '},{'text':'Two light boxes (box A and box B) are standing side by side. Box A has a volume of 1 m^3. Box B has a volume of 10 m^3. Box A is filled with gold and has a total mass of 19x10^3 kg. Box B is filled with water and has a total mass of 10x10^3 kg. Select the correct statement: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Box A has a lower density than Box B because it has less mass per unit volume ','optionB':'Box B has a lower density than Box A because it has more mass per unit volume ','optionC':'Box A has a higher density than Box B because it has more mass per unit volume T ','optionD':'Both boxes have the same density '},{'text':'A brick has mass 2.2 kg and dimensions 102.5 mm x 65 mm x 215 mm.  Calculate the density of the brick. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.5 x 10^-6 kg m^-3 ','optionB':'3.2 x 10^6 kg m^-3 ','optionC':'1.5 x 10^3 kg m^-3 ','optionD':'3.2 x 10^-3 kg m^-3'},]


doppler_2_quiz_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'When an automobile moves towards a listener, the sound of its horn seems relatively ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'low pitched ','optionB':'high pitched ','optionC':'normal ','optionD':'No Change '},{'text':'When the automobile moves away from the listener, its horn seems ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'low pitched ','optionB':'high pitched ','optionC':'normal ','optionD':'No Change '},{'text':'A trumpet player is standing on a stage playing a single note. Which choice would result in you hearing a higher pitch than the trumpeter? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Run very fast toward the trumpeter. ','optionB':'Cover your ears. ','optionC':'Play the sound much louder through a headphone. ','optionD':'Get the trumpeter to point the horn at the sky. '},{'text':'Betty is running at 5 ms^-1 toward a whistle, which is stationary. An identical whistle is approaching Bob at 5 ms-1. Which statement about the pitch of the whistle is correct? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Betty and Bob both hear a pitch which is higher than normal. ','optionB':'Betty and Bob both hear a pitch which is lower than normal. ','optionC':'Betty perceives the pitch to be higher and Bob perceives it to be lower than normal. ','optionD':'Betty perceives the pitch to be lower and Bob perceives it to be higher than normal. '},{'text':'An aircraft is moving away from you at half the speed of sound, which, on that day is about 340 ms^-1. The jet engines make a sound that is primarily about 300 Hz. What is the apparent frequency of the jet engines? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'150 Hz ','optionB':'200 Hz ','optionC':'470 Hz ','optionD':'600 Hz '},{'text':'A fast-moving car is sounding its horn as it moves by you. What will you observe just as the car passes by you? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'the pitch gets lower ','optionB':'the pitch gets higher ','optionC':'the pitch alternates behind high and low, repeatedly ','optionD':'the pitch is unchanged '},{'text':'A trumpet player is standing on a stage playing a single note. Which choice would result in you hearing a higher pitch than the trumpeter? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Run very fast toward the trumpeter. ','optionB':'Cover your ears. ','optionC':'Play the sound much louder through a headphone. ','optionD':'Get the trumpeter to point the horn at the sky. '},{'text':'A police car travelling at 30.0 ms-1 sounds its 525 Hz siren as it approaches a person standing on the side of the road. If the speed of sound is 344 ms^-1, what frequency is heard by the person? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'483 Hz ','optionB':'525 Hz ','optionC':'555 Hz ','optionD':'575 Hz '},{'text':'An ambulance approaches an observer at 31.5 ms^-1 on a day when the speed of sound is 341 ms^-1. If the frequency heard is 525 Hz, what is the actual frequency of the siren? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'477 Hz ','optionB':'481 Hz ','optionC':'573 Hz ','optionD':'578 Hz '},{'text':'High frequency sound waves are directed at an artery. Reflected waves have a different frequency than the incident waves due to the movement of blood cells in an artery. From this difference the speed of blood cells can be determined. This is an application of which wave property? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Diffraction ','optionB':'Doppler Effect ','optionC':'Interference ','optionD':'Refraction '},{'text':'The Doppler effect produces apparent changes in ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'loudness ','optionB':'frequency ','optionC':'amplitude ','optionD':'velocity '},{'text':'A distant star is known to produce a frequency of 6.0010^-14Hz. If it is moving away from the Earth at 5.3510^-6m/s, what wavelength is observed on Earth? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'8.9210^-9 m ','optionB':'4.9110^-7 m ','optionC':'5.0910^-7 m ','optionD':'5.7310^-7 m '},{'text':'A car horn has a frequency of 400 Hz. The car is moving away from an intersection at 20 ms^-1. The frequency heard by a woman standing at the intersection could be: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'390 Hz ','optionB':'400 Hz ','optionC':'410 Hz ','optionD':'420 Hz '},{'text':'An observer approaches a stationary 1000 Hz sound source at twice the speed of sound. What frequency does the observer hear? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'4,000 Hz ','optionB':'3,000 Hz ','optionC':'2,000 Hz ','optionD':'none of these '},{'text':'What frequency do you hear if you are traveling at 15 ms^-1 toward a train with a 750 Hz whistle? The train is moving away from you at 25 ms^-1 and the temperature is 15 degrees C. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'668 Hz ','optionB':'729 Hz ','optionC':'774 Hz ','optionD':'845 Hz '},{'text':'What is the frequency heard by a stationary observer when a train approaches with a speed of 30 ms^-1? The frequency of the train horn is 600 Hz and the speed of sound is 340 ms^-1. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'570 Hz ','optionB':'630 Hz ','optionC':'653 Hz ','optionD':'658 Hz'},]


electrical_energy_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'What is the definition of voltage ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'V = I/W ','optionB':'V = Q/W ','optionC':'V = W/Q T ','optionD':'V = W/I '},{'text':'What is the power of a 3 Ohm resistor when a potential difference of 5V is put across it? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'15W ','optionB':'25W ','optionC':'8.3W T ','optionD':'75W '},{'text':'A resistor of resistance 5 Ohms has a current of 2 Amps running through it. What is the energy dissipated by the resistor over a time of 4 seconds? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'50 J ','optionB':'40 J ','optionC':'45 J ','optionD':'80 J T '},{'text':'A light bulb of 100 percent efficiency releases 120J of light for every 5C of charge that passes through it. What is its voltage? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'600V ','optionB':'120V ','optionC':'12V ','optionD':'24V T '},{'text':'A heater has a potential difference of 24V across it and a current of 3A flowing through it. What is the total energy dissipated as heat by the heater over a period of 25 minutes? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'95 kJ ','optionB':'108 kJ T ','optionC':'83kJ ','optionD':'117kJ '},{'text':'A proton moves through a potential difference of 7V. What is the work done by the proton? (Elementary charge = 1.60x10^-19 C) ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.25x10^-18 J ','optionB':'1.12x10^-18 J T ','optionC':'1.31x10^-18 J ','optionD':'1.03x10^-18 J '},{'text':'A light bulb of 100 percent efficiency releases 120J of light for every 5C of charge that passes through it. What is its voltage? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'24V T ','optionB':'120V ','optionC':'12V ','optionD':'600V '},{'text':'What is the voltage across a resistor (25 Ohms) if 5.4x10^19 electrons pass through it every second? (Elementary charge = 1.60x10^-19 C) ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'192V ','optionB':'216V T ','optionC':'154V ','optionD':'235V '},{'text':'A bulb has a power of 4W when operated at a voltage of 12V. What is the current through the bulb when there is 12V across the bulb? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'3.0 A ','optionB':'6.1 A ','optionC':'0.33A T ','optionD':'12A '},{'text':'What is the power output of a 3O resistor when a current of 5A is flowing through it? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'75W T ','optionB':'45W ','optionC':'25W ','optionD':'95W'},]


electric_fields_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Which of the following statements about the Coulomb force and Newton's force of gravitation between two bodies is true? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Both are always attractive ','optionB':'Newtons force is always attractive but the Coulomb force can be either attractive or repulsive T ','optionC':'The Coulomb force is always attractive but Newtons force can be either attractive or repulsive ','optionD':'Both are always repulsive '},{'text':'Both the Coulomb force and Newtons gravitational force between two objects depend on the distance between them. Which of the following statements is true? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The Coulomb force between two objects depends on the inverse square of their separation but Newtons gravitational force does not ','optionB':'Newtons gravitational force between two objects depends on the inverse square of their separation but the Coulomb force does not ','optionC':'Both the Coulomb force and Newtons gravitational force between two objects depend on the inverse square of their separation T ','optionD':'Neither the Coulomb force nor Newtons gravitational force between two objects depend on the inverse square of their separation '},{'text':'Which of the following is the correct definition of the electric field strength? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The charge per unit mass ','optionB':'The force exerted per unit mass ','optionC':'The charge induced per unit force ','optionD':'The charge induced per unit force T '},{'text':'Which of the following expressions is the correct form of the electrostatic force between two charges Q1 and Q2 separated by a distance r? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'F = Q1Q2/(4 pi E0 r) ','optionB':'F = Q1Q2/(4 pi E0 r^2) T ','optionC':'F = Q1Q2/(E0 r) ','optionD':'F = Q1Q2/(4 pi r^2) '},{'text':'An Oxygen (atomic number 8) atom has lost one of its electrons, becoming an ion. Both protons and electrons have a charge of +/- 1.6x10^-19 C. What is the strength of the electric field 1mm away from the ion? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'+1.4 mN/C T ','optionB':'-2.1 N/C ','optionC':'-16.8 mN/C ','optionD':'+6.44 N/C '},{'text':'Two alpha particles, each with 2 protons apiece, are separated by a distance of 0.1mm in a vacuum. What is the Coulomb force felt on each particle? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'5.5 x 10^-18 N ','optionB':'4.6 x 10^-17 N ','optionC':'9.2 x 10^-20 N T ','optionD':'2.3 x 10-21 N '},{'text':'Is electric field strength a vector or a scalar quantity? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Vector T ','optionB':'Scalar ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'Which of the following is the correct expression for the electric field strength surrounding a point charge Q? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'E = Q^2 / (4 pi E0 r) ','optionB':'E = Q^2 / (4 pi E0 r^2) ','optionC':'E = Q / (4 pi E0 r) ','optionD':'E = Q / (4 pi E0 r^2) T '},{'text':'Which of the following is the correct definition of the Coulomb force between two separated charges? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'t is proportional to the ratio of the two charges, and inversely proportional to the distance separating them ','optionB':'It is inversely proportional to the product of the two charges, and proportional to the square of the distance separating them ','optionC':'It is proportional to the product of the two charges, and inversely proportional to the distance separating them ','optionD':'It is proportional to the product of the two charges, and inversely proportional to the square of the distance separating them T '},{'text':'What are the correct units of electric field strength? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Newtons per Coulomb T ','optionB':'Newtons ','optionC':'Coulombs ','optionD':'Coloumbs per Newton '},{'text':'A hydrogen atom consists of one proton orbited by one electron. If the atom has a radius of 5.3 x 10^-11 m, what is the strength of the Coulomb force acting on the electron due to the proton's charge? Each has a charge of 1.6 x 10^-19 C ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'4.3 x 10^-18 N ','optionB':'6.7 c 10^-4 N ','optionC':'8.2 x 10^-8 N T ','optionD':'5.1 x 10^-11 N '},{'text':'Two electrons are located one metre from one another. Each has a charge of 1.6 x 10^-19 C. What is the Coulomb force that they are exerting on one another? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'9.9 x 10^-12 N ','optionB':'2.3 x 10^-28 N T ','optionC':'1.4 x 10^-9 N ','optionD':'6.9 x 10^-14 N '},{'text':'Two infinite conducting plates are placed parallel to one another at a constant separation of 2 metres. A potential difference of 50 volts is applied across the two plates. A single electron is placed on one of the plates. If it starts at rest, how long does it take to traverse the distance between the plates? The electrons mass is 9.1x10^-31 kg, and you may ignore the effects of gravity. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'5.9x10^-4 s ','optionB':'9.5x10^-7 s T ','optionC':'9.1x10^-13 s ','optionD':'1.9x10^-2 s '},{'text':'Two parallel conducting plates at situated 0.2 metres apart from one another. If a voltage of 12 V is applied across the two plates, what is the magnitude of the electric field between the plates? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'60 N/C T ','optionB':'12 N/C ','optionC':'6 N/C ','optionD':'2.4 N/C '},{'text':'Which of the following is the correct definition of the electric potential at a point in an electric field? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The work required to deconstruct the field at that point ','optionB':'The work done in bringing a unit negative charge to that point from infinity ','optionC':'The work done to construct the field at that point ','optionD':'The work done in bringing a unit positive charge to that point from infinity T '},{'text':'An alpha particle consists of 2 protons (charge +1.6x10^-19 C) and 2 neutrons (chargeless). What is the value of the electric potential at a distance of 0.5 mm from the particle? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.15x10^-2 J/C ','optionB':'5.75x10^-6 J/C ','optionC':'1.15x10^-2 J/C ','optionD':'5.75x10^-6 J/C T '},{'text':'Two conducting plates have a voltage of 6 V applied across them and have an electric field of magnitude 150 N/C between them. What is the separation of the two plates? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'16 cm ','optionB':'12 cm ','optionC':'4 cm T ','optionD':'8 cm '},{'text':'Which of the following is the correct definition of the magnitude of the electric potential at a distance r from a point charge Q? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'V = Q/(4 pi E0 r^2) ','optionB':'V = Q^2/(4 pi E0 r) ','optionC':'V = Q^2/(4 pi E0 r^2) ','optionD':'V = Q/(4 pi E0 r) T '},{'text':'Two conducting plates are placed parallel to one another at a constant separation d, and a potential difference V is applied across the plates. A charge q is placed on one plate. How much work is done in moving this charge from one plate to the other? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'W = qV/d ','optionB':'W = qV T ','optionC':'W = d/q ','optionD':'W = V/d '},{'text':'Two conducting plates are placed 5 cm apart from one another. In the gap between the plates there exists an electric field strength of 480 N/C. What is the voltage across the two plates? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'24 V T ','optionB':'6 V ','optionC':'48 V ','optionD':'12 V '},{'text':'A Carbon atom (atomic number 6) contains 6 electrons and 6 protons, each of charge +/-1.6x10^-19 C respectively. It absorbs a new electron, making it a -1 ion. What is the value of the electric potential at a distance of 0.2 mm from the ion? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'7.2x10^-6 J/C T ','optionB':'7.2x10^-8 J/C ','optionC':'3.6x10-2 J/C ','optionD':'5.5x10-6 J/C '},{'text':'Two conducting plates are parallel to one another, at a constant separation. A potential difference exists across the two plates, creating a uniform electric field between them. A charged particle enters this field with its initial trajectory parallel to the plates. What shape does its trajectory in the electric field trace out? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'A parabola T ','optionB':'A straight line ','optionC':'A hyperbola ','optionD':'An ellipse '},{'text':'Two infinite, conducting parallel plates are placed at a separation d from one another, and a potential difference V is applied between them. This generates a uniform electric field between the two plates. What is the value of the electric field strength? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'E = dV ','optionB':'E = V/d T ','optionC':'E = (V^2)/d ','optionD':'E = d/V '},{'text':'An alpha particle, consisting of two protons and two neutrons, is fired at another alpha particle (which is held stationary) with an initial speed of 2 m/s. The first alpha particle decelerates as it approaches the second alpha particle due to electrostatic repulsion, and eventually stops at a distance of closest approach before reversing its direction and accelerating away. What is the distance of closest approach? You may assume that protons and neutrons have an equal mass of 1.6x10^-27 kg, and that protons have a charge of 1.6x10^-19 C. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'9 nm ','optionB':'18 m ','optionC':'7 cm T ','optionD':'2 mm'},]


electromagnetic_induction_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'A circular coil has a radius of 4 cm, and has 20 turns. A magnet is moved over the course of 3 seconds towards the coil, moving parallel to its long axis. By doing this the magnetic flux density in the coil increases from 100 mT to 250 mT. What is the induced emf? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'7.5 mV ','optionB':'2.5 mV ','optionC':'12.5 mV ','optionD':'5 mV T '},{'text':'A perfectly efficient transformer consists of a primary coil with 50 turns and a secondary coil with 150 turns. If there is 2 A of current flowing into the transformer with a potential difference of 16 V, what is the current flowing out of the transformer? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.32 A ','optionB':'0.16 A ','optionC':'0.67 A T ','optionD':'0.48 A '},{'text':'A circular coil has a radius of 2 cm, and 20 turns. It is positioned in a magnetic field of flux density 60 mT such that its plane is perpendicular to the field lines. The coil is then turned in 0.1 s such that it is edge-on to the field. What is the emf induced in the coil? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'25 mV ','optionB':'1.8 V ','optionC':'15 mV T ','optionD':'6 mV '},{'text':'A transformer consists of a primary coil with 75 turns and a secondary coil with 25. If the secondary voltage is 36 V, what is the primary voltage? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'18 V ','optionB':'12 V ','optionC':'108 V T ','optionD':'36 V '},{'text':'A transformer steps up a voltage by a factor of 3. If the secondary coil has 24 turns on it, how many turns does the primary coil have? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'12 turns ','optionB':'48 turns ','optionC':'72 turns ','optionD':'8 turns T '},{'text':'A transformer consists of a primary coil with Np turns at the primary voltage Vp, and a secondary coil with Ns turns at the secondary voltage Vs. Which of the following expressions is correct? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Np/Ns = Vs/Vp ','optionB':'Ns/Np = Vs/Vp T ','optionC':'Ns/Np = Vp/Vs ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'A transformer consists of a primary coil with 40 turns and a secondary coil with 10 turns. If the voltage across the secondary coil is 12 V, what is the voltage across the primary coil? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'12 V ','optionB':'48 V T ','optionC':'3 V ','optionD':'6 V '},{'text':'The national grid transmits electricity from power stations to people's homes. To do this efficiently the grid must minimise losses in transport. What is the best way to do this, of the options below? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Transmit the electricity at a low voltage and high current ','optionB':'Transmit the electricity at a low current and high voltage T ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'A coil has 10 turns and is placed head-on to a magnetic field with flux density 40 mT, such that its plane is perpendicular to the field lines. It is then rotated 90 degrees in 0.04 s such that it finishes edge-on to the field, with its plane parallel to the field lines. Doing this induces an emf of 0.5 V. What is the radius of the coil? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2.9 cm ','optionB':'0.7 cm ','optionC':'12.6 cm T ','optionD':'6.4 cm '},{'text':'A possible unit of emf is ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'A/s ','optionB':'Wb/A ','optionC':'A/Wb ','optionD':'Wb/S T '},{'text':'The rate of change of flux linkage equals ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Induced current ','optionB':'Flux density ','optionC':'emf T ','optionD':'flux density x area '},{'text':'In determining the direction of induced current, the current can be represented by the middle finger, the field by the index finger, and the motion by the thumb, on which hand? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Left hand ','optionB':'Right hand T ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'Which of the following statements of Faradays law of electromagnetic induction in a coil is correct? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The magnitude of the induced emf, E, is proportional to the magnetic flux linkage through the coil ','optionB':'The magnitude of the induced emf, E, is inversely proportional to the magnetic flux linkage through the coil ','optionC':'The magnitude of the induced emf, E, is inversely proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux linkage through the coil ','optionD':'The magnitude of the induced emf, E, is proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux linkage through the coil T '},{'text':'A coil of wire has an area of 0.005 square metres and consists of 20 turns. It is placed exactly perpendicular to a magnetic field with flux density 25 mT, such that magnetic field lines run across the diameter of the coil. What is the total magnetic flux linkage passing through the coil? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'5.0 Wb ','optionB':'2.5 mWb ','optionC':'0 Wb T ','optionD':'17.5 mWb'},]


electron_energy_levels_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'What is the term given to the fact that energy levels exist in discrete values? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Energised. ','optionB':'Nanoscale. ','optionC':'Fixed. ','optionD':'Quantised. T '},{'text':'Energy levels in an atom are negative. Which of the following statements correctly identifies why this is the case? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The electrons bound to the atom must gain energy energy in order to move up to a higher energy level or escape the atom, therefore we write that they have negative energy. T ','optionB':'The electrons bound to the atom must lose energy in order to move up to a higher energy level or escape the atom, therefore we write that they have negative energy. ','optionC':'The electrons bound to the atom experience a repulsive electrostatic force from the nucleus of the atom and so have a negative energy. ','optionD':'The electrons bound to the atom have a negative charge and so have a negative energy. '},{'text':'An electron is in an atom and energy is input such that the potential energy of the atom changes to 0 eV. Which of the following statements accurately describes the electron at this point? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'It is in the highest energy level of the atom. ','optionB':'It is in the ground state of the atom. ','optionC':'It is not bound to the atom. T ','optionD':'It is not moving. '},{'text':'An electron moves from an energy level at -10 eV to one at -3 eV. Which of the following is the term given to this process? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The electron has released energy. ','optionB':'The electron has lost energy. ','optionC':'The electron has been excited. T ','optionD':'The electron has escaped. '},{'text':'Which of the following correctly defines the electronvolt? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The electronvolt is the potential difference required to transfer 1 joule of energy to the electron. ','optionB':'The electronvolt is the amount of energy transferred to an electron when it is passed through a potential difference of one volt. T ','optionC':'The electronvolt is the amount of energy stored by an electron at rest. ','optionD':'The electronvolt is amount of charge stored by an electron. '},{'text':'An electron moves from an energy level at -1.2 eV to one at -9.2 eV. Which of the following is the term given to this process? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The electron has gained energy. ','optionB':'The electron has been absorbed. ','optionC':'The electron has been excited. ','optionD':'The electron has been de-excited. (relaxed) T '},{'text':'An electron undergoes de-excitation within an atom. What happens to the energy it loses? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'It is absorbed by the atom. ','optionB':'It is released as a single photon. T ','optionC':'It is transferred into an increased kinetic energy of the electron ','optionD':'It is released as many photons. '},{'text':'Which of the following expressions correctly relates the energy of a photon to its wavelength? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'E = h.lambda ','optionB':'E = h.c ','optionC':'E = h.lambda / c ','optionD':'E = h.c/lambda T '},{'text':'A hydrogen atom and a magnesium atom each undergo a series of electron excitation and de-excitation. The set of photons released from hydrogen when electrons dexcite is very different to the set of photons released from magnesium. What would explain this difference? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The hydrogen atom is at a higher temperature than the magnesium atom . ','optionB':'The hydrogen atom is at a lower temperature than the magnesium atom . ','optionC':'The hydrogen atom has fewer electrons than the magnesium atom. ','optionD':'The hydrogen and magnesium atoms have a unique set of energy levels. T'},]


emission_and_absorption_spectra_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Which photon will cause an electron to be excited from level -3.4eV to a level -1.5eV ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.9 eV T ','optionB':'3.4 eV ','optionC':'10.2 eV ','optionD':'12.1 eV '},{'text':'Which photon will be emitted when an electron falls from level -1.5eV to level -13.6eV ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.9 eV ','optionB':'3.4 eV ','optionC':'10.2 eV ','optionD':'12.1 eV T '},{'text':'Absorption spectra are used to study stars. They can be used to: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Measure how bright a star is ','optionB':'Tell us the size of the star ','optionC':'Tell us how hot the star is ','optionD':'Identify the elements within a star T '},{'text':'Identify the correct definition of path difference ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The difference in the wavelength of two waves ','optionB':'The difference in the amplitude of two waves ','optionC':'The difference in the displacement of the medium of two waves at a specific point ','optionD':'The difference in the distance travelled by two waves from their source to a specific point T '},{'text':'If n is a whole number, then two waves are in phase if they have: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'a path difference of n.lambda T ','optionB':'a path difference of (n+1/2).lambda ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'If n is a whole number, then two waves from two slits of a grating will create a bright fringe if there is: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'a path difference of n.lambda T ','optionB':'a path difference of (n+1/2).lambda ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'Use trigonometry to select the equation that represents that path difference. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'d.cos(theta) = n.lambda ','optionB':'d.tan(theta) = n.lambda ','optionC':'d.sin(theta) = n.lambda T ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'White light is incident on a diffraction grating and produces an interference pattern of bright and dark fringes on a screen placed behind the grating. Select the statement that correctly describes the bright fringes on the screen. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Each bright fringe is white ','optionB':'Each bright fringe is a spectrum of colours with blue on the side closest to the central fringe, and red on the furthest side ','optionC':'Each bright fringe is a spectrum of colours with red on the side closest to the central fringe, and blue on the furthest side ','optionD':'The central bright fringe is white, the rest are are a spectrum of colours with blue on the side closest to the central fringe, and red on the furthest side T '},{'text':'Identify the equation for the highest order maxima ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'n = lambda/d ','optionB':'n = d.sin(theta)/lambda ','optionC':'n = d/lambda T ','optionD':'n = lambda/(d.sin(theta))'},]


equations_of_uniform_motion_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'A boat is travelling at 5m/s. It accelerates at 2m/s^2 for 8 seconds. What is the boats final velocity? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'23m/s ','optionB':'16m/s ','optionC':'21m/s T ','optionD':'18m/s '},{'text':'An Olympic cyclist starts a race by accelerating uniformly from rest at 2m/s^2 for a distance of 50m. What is her velocity at the end of the 50m? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'33m/s ','optionB':'25m/s ','optionC':'14m/s ','optionD':'5m/s '},{'text':'A bullet, of mass 0.25kg, is shot in the air at an initial velocity of 50m/s. Ignoring air resistance find the height which the bullet reaches ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'127m T ','optionB':'145m ','optionC':'113m ','optionD':'132m '},{'text':'An Olympic cyclist starts a race by accelerating uniformly from rest at 2m/s^2. Once the cyclist has reached 20m/s she reduces her acceleration to 0.5m/s^2. She carries on at this acceleration rate for 15 seconds. How far has she gone since reaching 20m/s? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'356m T ','optionB':'429m ','optionC':'758m ','optionD':'517m '},{'text':'There is a large accident in front of a cyclist so she is forced to use her brakes. For her to be able to avoid the accident she must reduce her speed from 50m/s to 10m/s. This takes her 4 seconds. Calculate the magnitude of her deceleration. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'14m/s^2 ','optionB':'20m/s^2 ','optionC':'10m/s^2 ','optionD':'5m/s^2 '},{'text':'A tennis ball is travelling at 5m/s when it hits a tennis racket where it is accelerated in the opposite direction at 360m/s^2 for 0.1s. What is the balls final speed? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'26m/s ','optionB':'31m/s T ','optionC':'9m/s ','optionD':'15m/s '},{'text':'A lorry accelerates uniformly from 2m/s to 10m/s over 300m. How much time does it take for the lorry to travel the 300m? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'30s ','optionB':'70s ','optionC':'90s ','optionD':'50s T '},{'text':'How much time does it take a skydiver jumping from a plane to reach 30m/s? (ignore air resistance) ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'4.97s ','optionB':'2.51s ','optionC':'2.66s ','optionD':'3.06s T '},{'text':'A runner accelerates from 0 to 15m/s in 5 seconds and then remains at a constant speed. What is his acceleration for the first 5 seconds of the race? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1m/s^2 ','optionB':'3m/s^2 T ','optionC':'4m/s^2 ','optionD':'5m/s^2 '},{'text':'What does the gradient of a velocity-time graph represent? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Acceleration T ','optionB':'Distance Travelled ','optionC':'Velocity ','optionD':'Force '},{'text':'What does the gradient of a displacement-time graph represent? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Force ','optionB':'Momentum ','optionC':'Velocity T ','optionD':'Acceleration '},{'text':'A skydiver jumps from a plane at height 5,000m. At what speed is he falling when he reaches 1,000m? Air resistance may be neglected. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'350m/s ','optionB':'200m/s ','optionC':'140m/s ','optionD':'280m/s T'},]


equilibrium_quiz_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Consider an irregular piece of cardboard in a non-uniform gravitational field. We can hang the cardboard from a point and then use a plumb line to draw a vertical line. Select the correct statement: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'We can draw a horizontal line on the cardboard using a spirit level and the point of intersection is the centre of gravity.  ','optionB':'We can repeat the plumb line process for other points on the cardboard. The point of intersection is the centre of gravity (only) T ','optionC':'We can draw a horizontal line on the cardboard using a spirit level and the point of intersection is the centre of mass ','optionD':'We can repeat the plumb line process for other points on the cardboard. The point of intersection is the centre of mass (only) '},{'text':'Select the correct statement: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The centre of mass is the geometric centre of an object ','optionB':'The centre of mass is the point where the entire weight of an object appears to act ','optionC':'The centre of mass is the point through which any externally applied force produces only rotation ','optionD':'The centre of mass is the point through which any externally applied force produces straight line motion but no rotation T '},{'text':'Select the correct statement: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The centre of gravity is the geometric centre of an object. ','optionB':'The centre of gravity is an imaginary point where the entire weight of an object appears to act. T ','optionC':'The centre of gravity is the point through which any externally applied force produces only rotation. ','optionD':'The centre of gravity is the point through which any externally applied force produces straight line motion. '},{'text':'Consider a piece of cardboard in a uniform gravitational field. We can hang the cardboard from a point and then use a plumb line to draw a vertical line. Select the correct statement: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'We can repeat this for other points on the cardboard and the point of intersection is the centre of gravity (only). ','optionB':'We can repeat this for other points on the cardboard and the point of intersection is the centre of mass (only). ','optionC':'We can repeat this for other points on the cardboard and the point of intersection is the centre of gravity and also the centre of mass. T ','optionD':'We can draw a horizontal line on the cardboard using a spirit level and the point of intersection is the centre of gravity. '},{'text':'Select the correct equation for the moment of a force ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Moment = F x d T ','optionB':'Moment = F x t ','optionC':'Moment = F / d ','optionD':'Moment = F / t '},{'text':'Select the correct definition of a moment of a force: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The moment is the force times the perpendicular distance from the line of action of the force to the centre of mass of the object ','optionB':'The moment is the force times the perpendicular distance from the line of action of the force to the axis or point of rotation T ','optionC':'The moment is the force times the parallel distance from the line of action of the force to the centre of mass of the object ','optionD':'The moment is the force times the parallel distance from the line of action of the force to the axis or point of rotation '},{'text':'A force of 10.0 N is acting on a plank at an angle of 55.0 degrees to the horizontal, as shown below. The distance between the pivot and the point at which the force is applied is 20.0 cm. By first resolving the force into its perpendicular component, calculate the moment of the force F1 about the pivot. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2.86 Nm ','optionB':'2.00 Nm ','optionC':'1.64 Nm ','optionD':'1.45 Nm '},{'text':'Select the correctly written Principle of Moments: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'For a body in equilibrium the sum of the anti-clockwise and clockwise moments is non-zero ','optionB':'For a body at rest the sum of the anti-clockwise moments is equal to the sum of clockwise moments ','optionC':'For a body in rotational equilibrium the sum of the anti-clockwise moments is equal to the sum of clockwise moments T ','optionD':'For a body with zero net force acting on it, the sum of the anti-clockwise moments is equal to the sum of clockwise moments '},{'text':'Which of the statements below about couples are correct? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The net force from a couple is always zero. T ','optionB':'The net moment from a couple is always zero. ','optionC':'The principle of moments applies to a couple. ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'A driving wheel has two equal forces acting on opposite sides of the wheel, in opposite directions. Which of the statements below is true about the wheel? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The wheel is in equilibrium as the net force acting on it is zero and the sum of the anticlockwise moments is equal to the sum of the clockwise moments ','optionB':'The wheel is not in equilibrium because the net force on acting on it is non-zero ','optionC':'The wheel is not in equilibrium because the net force acting on it is non-zero and the sum of the anticlockwise moments is not equal to the sum of the clockwise moments ','optionD':'The wheel is not in equilibrium because even though the net force acting on it is zero, the sum of the anticlockwise moments is not equal to the sum of the clockwise moments T'},]


fluids_quiz_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'A cork of mass m and having density that is 50% of water density is totally immersed in a container of water. The cork is tied with a string and firmly attached to the bottom the container. The tension in the string is ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'mg ','optionB':'2mg ','optionC':'0 ','optionD':'1/2mg '},{'text':'The buoyant force on a solid cube of iron as it sinks into water of constant density ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'increases ','optionB':'decreases ','optionC':'stays the same ','optionD':'depends on the shape '},{'text':'When completely submerged under water, the apparent weight and volume of a steel block is 7.750 X 10^4 N and 1 m^3 respectively . The weight in air is ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'6.750 X 10^4 N ','optionB':'8.525 X 10^4 N ','optionC':'8.750 X 10^4 N ','optionD':'6.975 X 10^4 N '},{'text':'A ship sails out of a river of fresh water into the sea. The mass of water displaced in the sea is ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'greater ','optionB':'less ','optionC':'the same ','optionD':'depends on the shape of the ship '},{'text':'A solid body weighs 500N in air and 300N when completely submerged in water. The density is ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.50 X 10^3 kgm^-3 ','optionB':'1.67 X 10^3 kgm^-3 ','optionC':'6.00 X 10^3 kgm^-3 ','optionD':'2.50 X 10^3 kgm^-3 '},{'text':'The buoyant force on a completely submerged object depends on ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'its density ','optionB':'its volume ','optionC':'its mass ','optionD':'all of the above '},{'text':'Air bubbles expand when rising to the surface in water because ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'the water pressure increases as the bubbles ascend to the surface ','optionB':'the water pressure decreases as the bubbles ascend to the surface ','optionC':'the air pressure increases as the bubbles ascend to the surface ','optionD':'air diffuses to occupy maximum space when unconfined '},{'text':'Fluid pressure is always directed ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'up ','optionB':'down ','optionC':'sideways ','optionD':'in all directions '},]


fluids_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'A cork of mass m and having density that is 50% of water density is totally immersed in a container of water. The cork is tied with a string and firmly attached to the bottom the container. The tension in the string is ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'mg ','optionB':'2mg ','optionC':'0 ','optionD':'1/2mg '},{'text':'The buoyant force on a solid cube of iron as it sinks into water of constant density ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'increases ','optionB':'decreases ','optionC':'stays the same ','optionD':'depends on the shape '},{'text':'When completely submerged under water, the apparent weight and volume of a steel block is 7.750 X 10^4 N and 1 m^3 respectively . The weight in air is ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'6.750 X 10^4 N ','optionB':'8.525 X 10^4 N ','optionC':'8.750 X 10^4 N ','optionD':'6.975 X 10^4 N '},{'text':'A ship sails out of a river of fresh water into the sea. The mass of water displaced in the sea is ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'greater ','optionB':'less ','optionC':'the same ','optionD':'depends on the shape of the ship '},{'text':'A solid body weighs 500N in air and 300N when completely submerged in water. The density is ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.50 X 10^3 kgm^-3 ','optionB':'1.67 X 10^3 kgm^-3 ','optionC':'6.00 X 10^3 kgm^-3 ','optionD':'2.50 X 10^3 kgm^-3 '},{'text':'The buoyant force on a completely submerged object depends on ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'its density ','optionB':'its volume ','optionC':'its mass ','optionD':'all of the above '},{'text':'Air bubbles expand when rising to the surface in water because ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'the water pressure increases as the bubbles ascend to the surface ','optionB':'the water pressure decreases as the bubbles ascend to the surface ','optionC':'the air pressure increases as the bubbles ascend to the surface ','optionD':'air diffuses to occupy maximum space when unconfined '},{'text':'Fluid pressure is always directed ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'up ','optionB':'down ','optionC':'sideways ','optionD':'in all directions'},]


gases_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Define the ideal gas equation ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'RV=npT ','optionB':'pT=nRV ','optionC':'nT=pVR ','optionD':'pV=nRT T '},{'text':'Calculate the average kinetic energy of a molecule of a gas at 30 degrees Celsius. Boltzmanns constant is 1.38x10^-23 J/K. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'6.21x10^-22 J ','optionB':'6.28x10^-21 J T ','optionC':'6.21 J ','optionD':'6.28x10^-21 kJ '},{'text':'For a large number of molecules moving in a box, what is the mean velocity of all the molecules? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'v^2/2 ','optionB':'v^2 ','optionC':'vN ','optionD':'0 T '},{'text':'When does Boyles Law apply? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Constant volume ','optionB':'Constant pressure ','optionC':'Constant temperature T ','optionD':'All of the above '},{'text':'What is Boyles law? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'p is proportional to 1/V^2 ','optionB':'p is proportional to V ','optionC':'p is proportional to 1/V T ','optionD':'p is proportional to V^2 '},{'text':'What is the molecular mass of carbon-12? Avogadros number is 6.02 x 10 ^23. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.99x10^-23 kg ','optionB':'1.99x10^-23 kg ','optionC':'1.99x10^-26 kg T ','optionD':'0.99x10^-26 kg '},{'text':'When does Charles law apply? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'For constant pressure T ','optionB':'For constant volume ','optionC':'For constant temperature ','optionD':'All of the above '},{'text':'For 5x10^30 molecules of an ideal gas at 200 MPa occupying a space of 10 m3, what is the temperature? Boltzmanns constant is 1.38x10^-23 J/K. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'29 degrees Celsius ','optionB':'0.02899 K ','optionC':'29 K ','optionD':'2899 K T '},{'text':'How many molecules are there in 2 moles of oxygen molecules? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'24.16x10^23 ','optionB':'6.02x10^23 ','optionC':'3.01x10^23 ','optionD':'12.04x10^23 T '},{'text':'10 moles of an ideal gas occupy a volume of 1 m^3 at a temperature of 20 degrees Celsius. What is the pressure? The molar gas constant is 8.31 J mol^-1 K^-1. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'16.6 kPa ','optionB':'2.4 kPa ','optionC':'0.244 Pa ','optionD':'24.4 kPa T '},{'text':'What is an ideal gas? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'A gas where the average kinetic energy of its particles is zero ','optionB':'A gas at absolute zero ','optionC':'A gas where there are no forces between its molecules , except during collisions T ','optionD':'A gas where all its molecules are stationary '},{'text':'For 1 mole of an ideal gas at 20 degrees Celsius and atmospheric pressure (101325 Pa), what volume does it occupy? (the molar gas constant is 8.31 J/mol/K. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.64x10^-3 m^3 ','optionB':'0.24 m^3 ','optionC':'0.024 m^3 T ','optionD':'1.64 m^3 '},{'text':'What is the physical meaning of Avogadros constant? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The mass of a neutron ','optionB':'The radius of an electron ','optionC':'The number of atoms or molecules per mole of a substance T ','optionD':'The distance, in metres, of an electron from the nucleus '},{'text':'A number of nitrogen molecules (molar mass 28) are moving with kinetic energy 5x10^-21 J. What is the root mean squared speed (rms)? Avogadros number is 6.02x10^23. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'464 m/s T ','optionB':'480 m/s ','optionC':'430x10^3 m/s ','optionD':'464x10^3 m/s '},{'text':'In the following equation, what does n stand for? pV = nRT ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The number moles in the gas T ','optionB':'The molar gas constant ','optionC':'The Boltzmann constant ','optionD':'The number of molecules in the gas '},{'text':'4x10^3 moles of ideal gas at 10 degrees Celsius occupy a space of 1.5 m^3. What is the pressure? The molar gas constant is 8.31 Jmol^-1K^-1. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'6.27 Pa ','optionB':'222 Pa ','optionC':'6.27 MPa T ','optionD':'222 kPa '},{'text':'When modelling a particle moving in a box, which laws does it obey? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Newtons 1st Law of Motion ','optionB':'Newtons 2nd Law of Motion ','optionC':'Newtons 3rd Law of Motion ','optionD':'All of the above T '},{'text':'According to the molecular kinetic theory model, the kinetic energy of a single gas particle can be written as 1/2mv^2 . What does it also equal? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'pV ','optionB':'(3/2)KT T ','optionC':'3K/(2T) ','optionD':'nRT '},{'text':'What is the numerical value of Avogadros constant? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'6.02x10^23 T ','optionB':'6.02 ','optionC':'6.02x10^13 ','optionD':'6.02x10^-23 '},{'text':'How many molecules are there in 2 moles of oxygen molecules? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'3.01x10^23 ','optionB':'24.16x10^23 ','optionC':'12.04x10^23 T ','optionD':'6.02x10^23 '},{'text':'For 1 mole of an ideal gas at 20 degrees Celsius and atmospheric pressure (101325 Pa), what volume does it occupy? (the molar gas constant is 8.31 J/mol/K. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.024 m^3 T ','optionB':'1.64x10^-3 m^3 ','optionC':'1.64 m^3 ','optionD':'0.24 m^3 '},{'text':'1 pascal (Pa) equals what? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1 N/m ','optionB':'1 N/m^2 T ','optionC':'1 Nm^2 ','optionD':'1 Nm '},{'text':'What property of a substance changes during a change in state? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The mass ','optionB':'The temperature ','optionC':'The average kinetic energy of the particles ','optionD':'The volume T '},{'text':'30 cm^3 of air is trapped inside a box at a pressure of 0.2 MPa. The volume is then reduced by 10cm^3. What is the new pressure? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.3 MPa T ','optionB':'0.3 kPa ','optionC':'0.3 Pa ','optionD':'3 kPa '},{'text':'Define the Boltzmann constant ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'k = NA/R ','optionB':'k = n R ','optionC':'k = R NA ','optionD':'k = R/NA T '},{'text':'Which is another form of the ideal gas equation ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'pV = nKT ','optionB':'pV = NRT ','optionC':'pV = NKT T ','optionD':'p/V = NKT '},{'text':'The temperature of a gas is a measure of what? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The total kinetic energy of its molecules ','optionB':'The number of molecules ','optionC':'The separation of its molecules ','optionD':'The average kinetic energy of its molecules T '},{'text':'In order for a theoretical gas to obey the gas laws exactly, which of the following criteria must it fulfill? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Have negligibly small molecules ','optionB':'The collisions of the molecules take very little time ','optionC':'Its molecules must have elastic collisions ','optionD':'All of the above T'},]


gravitational_fields_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Complete the sentence - Gravitational field lines are ? to the surface of the Earth ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'parallel ','optionB':'perpendicular T ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'Two apples are sitting in a fruit bowl. If each apple has a radius of 4cm, and has a mass of 50 g, what is the gravitational force between them? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'4.8x10^-12 N ','optionB':'3.7x10^-10 N ','optionC':'5.9x10^-13 N ','optionD':'2.6x10^-11 N T '},{'text':'Which is the correct definition of Newtons law of gravitation between two objects of mass m1 and m2, separated by a distance r? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'f=-GmM/r ','optionB':'f=GmM/r ','optionC':'f=-GmM/r^2 T ','optionD':'f=-GmM/2r '},{'text':'The black hole Cygnus X-1 has a mass of approximately 3x10^31 kg and a radius of approximately 1.4x10^7 m. If Newtonian gravity can be assumed to hold at the surface of the black hole (spoiler: it doesnt), what is the magnitude of the gravitational field strength there? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1x10^7 ms^-2 T ','optionB':'4x10^2 ms^-2 ','optionC':'7x10^1 ms^-2 ','optionD':'3x10^4 ms^-2 '},{'text':'Mars has a surface gravity of 3.7 metres per second squared and a radius of 3.4x10^6 metres. What is the mass of Mars? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2.6x10^26 kg ','optionB':'9.8x10^20 kg ','optionC':'6.4x10^23 kg ','optionD':'1.8x10^17 kg T '},{'text':'Which of the following is not the SI unit of gravitational field strength? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'N kg^-1 ','optionB':'kg N^-1 ','optionC':'metres per second squared ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'Teachers often tell their students to make the most of their potential. If a student has a mass of 50 kg, and is standing on the surface of the Earth (radius 6,400 km and mass 6x10^24 kg), what is their gravitational potential energy? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'V = -1.1x10^6 J ','optionB':'V = -6.3x10^7 J ','optionC':'V = -7.6x10^8 J ','optionD':'V = -3.1x10^9 J T '},{'text':'What were the two suggestions about that gravitational force between two massive bodies that Newton made in his law of gravitation? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'That it is proportional to the product of the two masses, and to the square of the distance between them ','optionB':'That it is proportional to the ratio of the two masses, and to the square of the distance between them ','optionC':'That it is proportional to the product of the two masses, and to the inverse square of the distance between them T ','optionD':'That it is proportional to the ratio of the two masses, and to the inverse square of the distance between them '},{'text':'If Mars has a surface escape velocity of 500 m/s and a radius of 3,400 km, what is its mass? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'6.0x10^23 kg ','optionB':'6.4x10^21 kg T ','optionC':'8.5x10^20 kg ','optionD':'1.2x10^22 kg '},{'text':'The comet 67P/Churyumov-Gerasimenko is the target of the European Space Agencys Rosetta mission, in which a lander touches down on the surface of the comet. If 67P has a mass of 1x10^13 kg and an average radius of 2.5 km, what surface gravity will the lander experience at landing? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'4x10^-1 ms^-2 ','optionB':'3x10^-5 ms^-2 ','optionC':'5x10^-3 ms^-2 ','optionD':'1x10^-4 ms^-2 '},{'text':'The electrical repulsion between two electrons 1 metre apart has a magnitude of 2.3x10^-28 Newtons. If the mass of the electron is 9.1x10^-31 kg, how close must the electrons be to each other to experience a gravitational force of this strength? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2.1x10^-5 metres ','optionB':'2.4x10^-43 metres ','optionC':'9.1x10^-15 metres ','optionD':'4.9x10^-22 metres T '},{'text':'A 10 kg dog and her owner take a wrong turn and end up at the top of Mount Everest. If the Earth has a radius of 6,400 km and a mass of 6x10^24 kg, and Everest has a height of 8,848 m, what is the change in gravitational potential energy experienced by the dog? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'861,683 J ','optionB':'867,989 J ','optionC':'863,301 J T ','optionD':'869,314 J '},{'text':'Two protons, each of mass 1.67x10^-27 kg, are sitting in a helium nucleus at a separation of 1x10^-15 m. What is the gravitational force between them? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'3.1x10^-41 N ','optionB':'6.7x10^-31 N ','optionC':'1.8x10^-32 N ','optionD':'1.86x10^-34 N T '},{'text':'A Jaffa Cake, mass 10g, is floating 100 km above the surface of the Moon, radius 1,700 km and mass 7.3x10^22 kg. What is the gravitational force that the Jaffa Cake is exerting on the moon? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'9 mN ','optionB':'0.1 mN ','optionC':'15 mN T ','optionD':'18 mN '},{'text':'Which of the following is the correct definition of the gravitational field strength? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The gravitational force per unit length ','optionB':'The gravitational force per unit mass T ','optionC':'The gravitational force per unit time ','optionD':'The gravitational force '},{'text':'Is gravitational potential a scalar or vector quantity? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Vector quantity ','optionB':'Scalar quantity T ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'What is the difference between gravitational field strength and gravitational potential? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Field strength is the force per unit mass, while potential is the energy per unit mass ','optionB':'Field strength is the energy per unit mass, while potential is the force per unit mass ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'What are the units of gravitational potential? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Joules per Newton ','optionB':'Joules per kilogram T ','optionC':'Newtons per Joule ','optionD':'Joules '},{'text':'Which of the following is the correct definition of the gravitational potential at a distance r from a point mass of mass M kg? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'V=-GM/r T ','optionB':'V=GM/r ','optionC':'V=-GM/r2 ','optionD':'V=GM/r2 '},{'text':'The huge black hole Cygnus X-1 has a mass of approximately 3x10^31 kg, roughly 15 times the mass of the Sun. An astronaut of mass 85 kg is floating at a distance of 1.5x10^11 m from the black hole. What is the magnitude of the gravitational force that it exerts on the astronaut? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'14.1 mN ','optionB':'0.6 mN ','optionC':'0.3 N ','optionD':'7.6 N T '},{'text':'Which of the following is the correct definition of the escape velocity from a planet of mass M and radius R? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'v=root(gM/R) ','optionB':'v=1/2root(R/M) ','optionC':'v=2GM/R ','optionD':'v=root(2GM/R) T '},{'text':'It is often said that you should never underestimate the gravity of the situation. If Michael Sorrentino (aka The Situation) has a mass of 84kg, and a 50 kg female is 10 metres from him, what is the gravitational force that he exerts on her? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2.8x10^-8 N ','optionB':'6.1x10^-7 N ','optionC':'2.8x10^-9 N T ','optionD':'4.9x10^-10 N T '},{'text':'Which of the following is the correct definition of the gravitational potential at a point in a gravitational field? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The work done in bringing a unit mass from the maximum of the field to that point ','optionB':'The work done in bringing an infinite mass from zero to that point ','optionC':'The work done in creating a second gravitational field to counteract the existing field exactly ','optionD':'The work done in bringing a unit mass from infinity to that point T '},{'text':'What is the difference between gravitational potential and gravitational potential energy? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Potential is a property of the gravitational field, and potential energy is unique to each object in that field T ','optionB':'Potential energy is a property of the gravitational field, and potential is unique to each object in that ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'If the moon has a mass of 7.3x10^22 kg, and a radius of 1.7x10^6 metres, what is its surface gravity? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'9.8 metres per second squared ','optionB':'1.7 metres per second squared T ','optionC':'2.8 metres per second squared ','optionD':'0.3 metres per second squared '},{'text':'If the sun has a mass of 2x10^30 kg, what is the gravitational field strength due to its influence at a distance of the Earths orbit, roughly 1.5x10^11 metres? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.13 ms^-2 ','optionB':'1.89 ms^-2 ','optionC':'0.035 ms^-2 ','optionD':'0.0059 ms^-2 T '},{'text':'An object is thrown from the Earths surface with some non-vertical initial velocity. If the object eventually returns to the Earths surface, what shape does its path take? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'A hyperbola ','optionB':'A straight line ','optionC':'A parabola T ','optionD':'A circle '},{'text':'Which of the following statements about the Coulomb force and Newtons force of gravitation between two bodies is true? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The Coulomb force is always attractive but Newtons force can be either attractive or repulsive ','optionB':'Both are always attractive ','optionC':'Newtons force is always attractive but the Coulomb force can be either attractive or repulsive T ','optionD':'Both are always repulsive '},{'text':'The Earth has a mass of 6x10^24 kg and a radius of 6.4x10^6 metres. What is the escape velocity at the surface of the Earth? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'11.2 km/s T ','optionB':'7.9 km/s ','optionC':'125062.5 km/s ','optionD':'11.9 km/s'},]


gravitational_potential_quiz_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'which correctly states where physicists conventionally set the gravitational potential energy to be zero. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'At the centre of the mass creating the gravitational field ','optionB':'At infinity ','optionC':'Half-way between two masses ','optionD':'On the surface of the Sun '},{'text':'Identify the meaning of gravitational potential in relation to the gravitational potential energy. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The gravitational potential is the gravitational potential energy per unit joule ','optionB':'The gravitational potential is the absolute value of the gravitational potential energy ','optionC':'The gravitational potential is the gravitational potential energy per unit newton ','optionD':'The gravitational potential is the gravitational potential energy per unit mass T '},{'text':'Select the correct definition of gravitational potential at a point ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The work done in moving a unit mass from infinity to that point in a gravitational field T ','optionB':'The work done in moving a mass from infinity to that point in a gravitational field ','optionC':'The work done in lifting a unit mass to that point from the surface of the mass that creates the gravitational field ','optionD':'The work done in lifting a mass to that point from the surface of the mass that creates the gravitational field '},{'text':'Is gravitational potential a vector or a scalar quantity? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Vector ','optionB':'Scalar T ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'Identify the correct equation for the gravitational potential ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'V = GM/r ','optionB':'V=GM/r^2 ','optionC':'V=-GM/r T ','optionD':'V=-GM/r^2 '},{'text':'Identify the correct definition of the gravitational potential energy for a mass at a point ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The work done in moving a unit mass from infinity to that point in a gravitational field ','optionB':'The work done in moving the mass from infinity to that point in a gravitational field T ','optionC':'The work done in lifting a unit mass to that point from the surface of the mass that creates the gravitational field ','optionD':'The work done in lifting the mass to that point from the surface of the mass that creates the gravitational field '},{'text':'Identify how the gravitational potential energy is related to the gravitational potential ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'E = m/V ','optionB':'E=m^2V ','optionC':'E=mV T ','optionD':'E=V/m '},{'text':'Identify the correct equation for the gravitational potential energy for a radial field. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'E = GMm/r ','optionB':'E = GMm/r^2 ','optionC':'E = -GMm/r T ','optionD':'E = -GMm/r^2 '},{'text':'We can approximate that the gravitational field close to the surface of the Earth is uniform. Identify the statement that correctly describes the change in gravitational potential energy if a mass is moved horizontal to the Earths surface. You may assume that there are no resistive forces ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The gravitational potential energy increases and does so proportional to the acceleration ','optionB':'The gravitational potential energy increases and does so proportional to the work done ','optionC':'The gravitational potential energy increases and does so proportional to the force applied ','optionD':'The gravitational potential energy stays constant as no work is done by or against the gravitational force T '},{'text':'Imagine a planet of mass M and radius R. What factors will affect the escape velocity of an object of mass m, trying to escape the planets gravitational field? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'m and R ','optionB':'M only ','optionC':'M, m and R ','optionD':'M and R T'},]


internal_resistance_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Two resistors in parallel (12 and 7 ohms) are connected in series with a 6V supply. The internal resistance of the supply is 0.5 ohms. What is the potential difference across the 12 ohm resistor? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'5.62V ','optionB':'5.39V ','optionC':'6V ','optionD':'4.95V '},{'text':'Two resistors in parallel (12 and 7 ohms) are connected in series with a 6V supply. The internal resistance of the supply is 0.5 ohms. What is the current in the circuit? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.38A ','optionB':'1.06A ','optionC':'1.22A T ','optionD':'1.13A '},{'text':'What is internal resistance? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The resistance to current through a cell or other voltage source T ','optionB':'The resistance to a change in current in any electrical component ','optionC':'The resistance to a change in current in a cell or other voltage source ','optionD':'The resistance to flow of current through any electrical component '},{'text':'In which of these cases would a high internal resistance be useful? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'High tension supply T ','optionB':'Re-chargeable battery ','optionC':'Radio battery ','optionD':'Car battery '},{'text':'What is the internal resistance of a cell when there is a current of 0.40 through a resistor of 13.5 Ohm connected to a battery of emf 6.0 V ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.5 Ohms T ','optionB':'2.3 Ohm ','optionC':'3.5 Ohm ','optionD':'4.5 Ohm '},{'text':'A load (external) resistance is connected to a voltage source that contains an internal resistance. If the load resistance is ?, the terminal (output) voltage will decrease. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'decreased T ','optionB':'increased ','optionC':'kept the same ','optionD':'removed '},{'text':'What will be the terminal pd of a cell of emf 2V and internal resistance 0.1 Ohm when supply a current of 5A ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.5 V ','optionB':'2 V ','optionC':'1.9 V ','optionD':'2.5 V'},]


magnetic_fields_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'An electron (mass 9.1x10^-31 kg and charge 1.6x10^-19 C) moves at 2 m/s through a magnetic field with flux density 2x10^-5 T in such a manner that its motion is always perpendicular to the field lines. As such its motion traces out a circular path. What radius does this circular orbit have? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.3 x 10^-4 m ','optionB':'5.7 x 10^-7 m T ','optionC':'6.2 x 10^-5 m ','optionD':'9.7 x 10^-9 m '},{'text':'Which of the following does not produce a magnetic field? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'A moving charge ','optionB':'A stationary charge T ','optionC':'The Earths core ','optionD':'An electrical current '},{'text':'A particle of mass m and charge Q is accelerated in a cyclotron by being subjected to a magnetic field of flux density B, and thus tracing out a circular orbit of radius r. How long does it take for the particle to complete a whole circular orbit? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2 pi m / (BQ) T ','optionB':'2 pi Q / (Br) ','optionC':'2 pi r / (BQ) ','optionD':'2 pi B / (m Q r) '},{'text':'A charged particle is moving through a magnetic field of flux density 250 mT at a velocity of 30 m/s exactly perpendicular to the field lines. If it experiences a force of 2.5x10^-17 N, what is the charge of the particle? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.6x10^-19 C ','optionB':'6.8x10^-18 C ','optionC':'3.3x10^-18 C T ','optionD':'1.5x10^-17 C '},{'text':'Which of the following statements about magnetic fields is correct? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Magnetic fields have no effect on moving charges ','optionB':'Magnetic fields have no effect on stationary charges T ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'An electron (charge 1.6x10^-19 C) is moving through a magnetic field of flux density 100mT perpendicular to the field lines with a velocity 3 m/s. What force does the electron experience as a result of this movement? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'4.8x10^-20 N T ','optionB':'1.1x10^-18 N ','optionC':'5.3x10^-19 N ','optionD':'7.6x10^-21 N '},{'text':'A charged particle of mass 6.7x10-27 kg moves through a magnetic field of flux density 2 mT at a constant speed of 15 m/s in such a manner that its direction of motion is always perpendicular to the field lines. It therefore traces out a circular path of radius 1.6x10^-4 m. What charge does the particle possess? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.67x10^-19 C ','optionB':'6.17x10^-18 C ','optionC':'3.14x10^-19 C T ','optionD':'8.25x10^-20 C '},{'text':'A particle with electric charge Q moves through a magnetic flux density B, perpendicular to the field lines, with a velocity v. What force F does it experience? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'F = BQv T ','optionB':'F = Bv/Q ','optionC':'F = B/vQ ','optionD':'F = BQ/v '},{'text':'A cyclotron is 2 m across and accelerates protons (mass 1.7x10^-27 kg and charge 1.6x10^-19 C) using a magnetic field of flux density 300 mT. How long does it take for the protons to complete a whole orbit of the cyclotron? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'867 ns ','optionB':'76 ns ','optionC':'223 ns T ','optionD':'3.5 ns '},{'text':'Which of the following is the correct definition of the magnetic force F acting on a wire of length l, carrying a current I, in a magnetic flux density B? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'F = 1/BIL ','optionB':'F = BI/L ','optionC':'F = B/IL ','optionD':'F = BIL T '},{'text':'What are the units of magnetic flux density? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Newtons per secondf ','optionB':'Joules ','optionC':'Newtons ','optionD':'Tesla T '},{'text':'A particle of mass m with charge Q moves through a magnetic flux density B, perpendicular to the field lines, with velocity v. Which of the following is the force due to the field experienced by the particle not proportional to? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'B ','optionB':'Q ','optionC':'m T ','optionD':'v '},{'text':'What is the relationship between the units of magnetic flux density, tesla, and of magnetic flux, webers? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'One weber is equal to one tesla per square metre ','optionB':'One weber is equal to one tesla per second ','optionC':'One tesla is equal to one weber per second ','optionD':'One tesla is equal to one weber per square metre T '},{'text':'A coil of wire has a cross sectional area of 0.04 square metres, and is aligned exactly parallel to a magnetic field with flux density 0.1 T. If the total flux linkage through the coil is 0.2 Wb, how many turns does the coil have? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'40 turns ','optionB':'50 turns T ','optionC':'60 turns ','optionD':'30 turns '},{'text':'A cross symbol represents a field line passing ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Into the page T ','optionB':'Out of the page ','optionC':'Parallel to the page ','optionD':'None of the above '},{'text':'A dot symbol represents a field line passing ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Into the page ','optionB':'Out of the page T ','optionC':'Parallel to the page ','optionD':'None of the above '},{'text':'In determining the direction of the force from a current flowing through a region with a magnetic flux density, the current can be represented by the middle finger, the field by the index finger, and the force by the thumb, on which hand? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Left hand T ','optionB':'Right hand ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'What is the force exerted on a wire, length 2 metres, which carries a current of 4 A at an angle of 30 degrees to a magnetic flux density of 50 mT? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.04 N ','optionB':'0.20 N T ','optionC':'0.32 N ','optionD':'0.003 N '},{'text':'Which of the following is the correct definition of the force experienced by a wire of length l, carrying current I, in a region of magnetic flux density B, where the current is at an angle theta to the field? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'F = BIL cos (theta) ','optionB':'F = BIL ','optionC':'F = BIL sin (theta) T ','optionD':'F = BIL e^theta '},{'text':'A coil of wire has a cross sectional area of 0.2 square metres, and has 30 turns. If the coil is aligned exactly parallel to a magnetic field of flux density 15 mT, what is the total flux passing through the coil? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'180 mWb ','optionB':'60 mWb ','optionC':'90 mWb ','optionD':'3 mWb T '},{'text':'A metal sheet has a total magnetic flux of 0.75 Wb passing through it. If the sheet has an area of 3 square metres, what is the magnetic flux density on the sheet? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2.25 T ','optionB':'250 mT T ','optionC':'150 mT ','optionD':'1.5 T '},{'text':'A metal sheet has a total magnetic flux passing through it of 150 mWb. If the flux density in the region is 7.5 mT, what is the area of the sheet? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2 m^2 ','optionB':'10 m^2 ','optionC':'4 m^2 ','optionD':'20 m^2 T '},{'text':'Which of the following is the correct definition of the magnetic flux passing through an area A with flux density B? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'B^2A ','optionB':'BA T ','optionC':'B/A ','optionD':'BA^2'},]


materials_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'What is the definition of tensile strain? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'F/L ','optionB':'x/L T ','optionC':'F/A ','optionD':'x/A '},{'text':'How would you measure the Young modulus from a stress-strain graph? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Highest point reached by the graph ','optionB':'Area under graph ','optionC':'Gradient of the straight line, before the limit of proportionality T ','optionD':'Average gradient of graph after the limit of proportionality '},{'text':'A metal spring has natural length 1m. When a 50kg weight is hung from the end it is measured to have a new length of 1.2m. What is the spring constant? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2,250N/m ','optionB':'1,800N/m ','optionC':'2,450N/m T ','optionD':'2,600N/m '},{'text':'What is the unit of Youngs modulus? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'N/m ','optionB':'dimensionless ','optionC':'Nm^2 ','optionD':'Pa T '},{'text':'State Hookes law ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'F=(1/2)kx^2 ','optionB':'F=kx^2 ','optionC':'F=(1/2)kx ','optionD':'F=kx T '},{'text':'The Young modulus is a measure of what? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Stiffness T ','optionB':'Ductility ','optionC':'Strength ','optionD':'Ultimate Tensile Stress '},{'text':'A wire of a particular material is measured to have a length of 0.76m. A stress of 25000N/m^2 is applied to the wire which stretches to a length of 0.78m. What is the Young modulus for this material? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'850,000N/m^2 ','optionB':'800,000N/m^2 ','optionC':'900,000N/m^2 ','optionD':'950,000N/m^2 D '},{'text':'What is the definition of tensile stress? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'x/A ','optionB':'F/L ','optionC':'x/L ','optionD':'F/A T '},{'text':'A graph of force against extension for a spring is best described by a ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Exponential Curve Through the Origin ','optionB':'Straight line through the origin T ','optionC':'Exponential Curve ','optionD':'Straight Line '},{'text':'The strain energy is represented by what on a load-extension graph? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The gradient of the line ','optionB':'The maximum load ','optionC':'The inverse of the gradient ','optionD':'The area under the graph T '},{'text':'A metal spring has natural length 1m. When a 50kg weight is hung from the end it is measured to have a new length of 1.2m. What is the energy stored in this spring? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'54J ','optionB':'38J ','optionC':'49J T ','optionD':'44J '},{'text':'What is the definition of the Young modulus? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Tensile Stress / Tensile Strain T ','optionB':'Tensile Strain / Tensile Stress ','optionC':'Tensile Stress / Area ','optionD':'Force / Tensile Strain '},{'text':'If a mass of 3kg were hung on a spring of spring constant 45N/m what would be strain energy stored in the spring? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'8.37J ','optionB':'10.1J ','optionC':'11.3J ','optionD':'9.62J T '},{'text':'A wire, of natural length 2.25m and diameter 0.1mm, is stretched to a length of 2.45m by someone hanging a 15kg mass from the wire's end. Which of these materials is the wire most likely to be composed of? (Young modulus of iron = 211GPa , Copper = 115GPa , Glass = 60GPa , Tungsten = 400GPa) ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Copper ','optionB':'Iron T ','optionC':'Tungsten ','optionD':'Glass '},{'text':'An engineer is designing a bridge and he needs each steel cable, of length 15m, to be able to hold up a weight of 40000N without it stretching more than 5cm. There are 200 steel fibres making up each cable. What radius should each fibre have? Steel has a Youngs modulus of 200GPa. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'3.1 x 10^-4m T ','optionB':'4.5 x 10^-4m ','optionC':'7.3 x10^-4m ','optionD':'5.6 x 10^-4m'},]


medical_physics_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'What is a charge couple device (CCD)? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The controls for moving the telescope ','optionB':'A microchip that converts a light signal into a digital format T ','optionC':'A piece of software that smooths blurred edges in images ','optionD':'A protective film for the detector '},{'text':'Which is a common use for particle-antiparticle annihilations? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'X-ray imaging ','optionB':'PET scanners T ','optionC':'Electrical power production ','optionD':'MRI scanners '},{'text':'Which of the following is ideal for use as tracer? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Molybdenum-99 ','optionB':'Radium-230 ','optionC':'Uranium-235 ','optionD':'Technetium-99m T '},{'text':'Which of these is not true about X-rays? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'They are EM waves ','optionB':'They travel at 3.0 x10^8 ms^-1 ','optionC':'They have a wavelength of about 10^-5m ','optionD':'X-rays are high energy photons '},{'text':'Which very brief description of the piezoelectric effect is correct? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Application of a p.d. across a crystal ','optionB':'A piezo crystal is heated to make it emit electrons ','optionC':'Pulses of ultrasound are fired at material to make it vibrate ','optionD':'None of the above '},{'text':'Find the max frequency for x-rays produced by a tube which has a p.d of 90,000 volts across it ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2.2 x10^19 Hz ','optionB':'2.2 x10^18 Hz ','optionC':'2.2 x10^17 Hz ','optionD':'3.6 x10^19 Hz '},{'text':'Find the min wavelength for x-rays produced by a tube which has a p.d of 90,000 volts across it ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.38 x10^-12 m ','optionB':'1.65 x10^-11 m ','optionC':'1.38 x10^11 m ','optionD':'1.38 x10^-11 m '},{'text':'What is the definition of intensity in the context of X-rays? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Work done per unit area ','optionB':'Power per unit volume ','optionC':'Power per unit cross sectional area ','optionD':'Power per unit potential difference '},{'text':'Which type of scanner can be improved by the use of Contrast media? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'MRI ','optionB':'X-ray ','optionC':'PET ','optionD':'Ultrasound '},{'text':'Which type of scanner requires the use of a coupling gel? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'MRI ','optionB':'X-ray ','optionC':'PET ','optionD':'Ultrasound '},{'text':'Which type of scanner uses a Beta+ Emitter? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'MRI ','optionB':'X-ray ','optionC':'PET ','optionD':'Ultrasound '},{'text':'Which type of scanner can be improved by the use of intensifying screens? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'MRI ','optionB':'X-ray ','optionC':'PET ','optionD':'Ultrasound '},{'text':'Where would you find a collimator ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'X ray tube ','optionB':'Ultrasound transducer ','optionC':'Gamma Camera ','optionD':'CAT scanner '},{'text':'Where would you find a piezoelectric material ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'X ray tube ','optionB':'Ultrasound transducer ','optionC':'Gamma Camera ','optionD':'CAT scanner '},{'text':'Where would you find Sodium Iodide? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'PET scanner ','optionB':'CAT scanner ','optionC':'MRI scanner ','optionD':'Ultrasound transducer '},{'text':'Which type of scan can be either 'A' or 'B'? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'PET ','optionB':'CAT ','optionC':'MRI ','optionD':'Ultrasound '},{'text':'Where would you find gradient coils? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'PET scanner ','optionB':'CAT scanner ','optionC':'MRI scanner ','optionD':'Ultrasound transducer '},{'text':'Which type of scan relies on the Larmor frequency? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'PET ','optionB':'CAT ','optionC':'MRI ','optionD':'Ultrasound '},{'text':'An example of a Tracer is ... ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Barium ','optionB':'Technetium ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'An example of a contrast medium is ... ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Iodine ','optionB':'Technetium ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'Which of these words could be used to describe the shape of the X ray beam in a CAT scan? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'thin ','optionB':'wide ','optionC':'fan shaped ','optionD':'cube shaped '},{'text':'Where would you find a gamma camera? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'MRI scanner ','optionB':'Ultrasound transducer ','optionC':'CAT scanner ','optionD':'PET Scanner '},{'text':'Where would you find photomultiplier tubes? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'MRI scanner ','optionB':'Ultrasound transducer ','optionC':'CAT scanner ','optionD':'PET Scanner'},]


moments_and_equilibrium_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'A car of mass 1,200kg is on a bridge of mass 15,000kg and length 20m, which is supported at its two ends, A and B. The car is at a distance of 5m from B. What is the force required at B from the support for the bridge not to collapse? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'19,300N ','optionB':'75,600N ','optionC':'82,400N T ','optionD':'105,000N '},{'text':'A car of mass 1,500kg is stationary on a steep slope angled at 60 degrees. What is the magnitude of the frictional force due to the brakes of the car needed to keep the car stationary? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'9,320N ','optionB':'15,600N ','optionC':'12,700N T ','optionD':'6,050N '},{'text':'A car of mass 1,500kg is stationary on a steep slope angled at 60 degrees. What is the magnitude of the Normal force on the plane by the car? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'3,420N ','optionB':'7,360N T ','optionC':'10,500N ','optionD':'1,500N '},{'text':'A motorcycle is moving at constant velocity. The engine of the motorcycle applies a torque of 1750Nm to the back wheel which has a radius of 40cm. Assuming that the wheel does not skid what is the frictional force of the road on the wheel? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'3,985N ','optionB':'4,535N ','optionC':'4,795N ','optionD':'4,375N T'},]


momentum_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'A snooker ball of mass 0.1kg is initially at rest on a perfectly smooth table. It is struck by a cue, which exerts a force of 4 Newtons for 0.05 seconds. How fast is the snooker ball now moving? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2 m/s T ','optionB':'20 m/s ','optionC':'4 m/s ','optionD':'1 m/s '},{'text':'Which is the correct definition of the principle of conservation of linear momentum? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The total linear momentum of a system is constant provided that an external resultant force acts in the direction of motion of the system ','optionB':'The total linear momentum of a system is constant provided that there is no external resultant force acting T ','optionC':'The total linear momentum of a system is constant provided that there is an external resultant force acting ','optionD':'The total linear momentum of a system is constant provided that the temperature of the system remains constant '},{'text':'A nucleus of Uranium-238 has mass 3.95 x10^-25 kg and undergoes radioactive decay. The nucleus is initially at rest, and splits into two product particles. One is a Uranium-234 nucleus of mass 3.88 x10^-25 kg which moves away at speed 0.1 m/s, and the other is an alpha particle of mass 6.64 x106-27kg. How fast is this particle moving? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'584 m/s ','optionB':'58.5 m/s ','optionC':'5.84 m/s ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'A 2kg and a 3kg mass are moving freely in a straight line. The 2kg mass collides inelastically with velocity 4 m/s into the 3kg mass, which is moving at 2 m/s in the same direction. After the collision the objects are both still travelling in the same direction. If the 2kg mass is travelling at 1 m/s then how fast is the 3kg mass moving? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'3 m/s ','optionB':'5 m/s ','optionC':'4 m/s T ','optionD':'2 m/s '},{'text':'Complete the sentence. The rate of change of an objects linear momentum is ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'dependent on the objects mass ','optionB':'equal to its kinetic energy ','optionC':'inversely proportional to the the resultant external force ','optionD':'directly proportional to the resultant external force T '},{'text':'A truck of mass 5000kg is travelling at 10 m/s and hits a stationary van of mass 3000kg. The van is crushed into the truck after the collision, and the two physically become one object of mass 8000kg. If no other forces are acting on the vehicles, how fast do they move together after the collision? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0 m/s ','optionB':'7.5 m/s ','optionC':'6.25 m/s T ','optionD':'5 m/s '},{'text':'A water cannon ejects 20 litres of water per second, at a muzzle velocity of 5 m/s. A protester is hit in the face with a jet from the water cannon. Any water which hits the protester comes to an immediate stop. What is the force exerted by the jet on the protesters face? (1 litre of water has a mass of 1kg) ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'4N ','optionB':'100N T ','optionC':'1kN ','optionD':'0.25N '},{'text':'In the context of linear momentum, what is the definition of an impulse? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The magnitude of a force divided by the time for which it acts ','optionB':'The magnitude of a force multiplied by the time for which it acts T ','optionC':'Low-speed spaceship engine setting ','optionD':'The magnitude of a force multiplied by the mass of the object on which it acts '},{'text':'A spacecraft initially at rest of mass 20,000kg fires its rocket, which expels 100kg of gas every second at a speed of 1000 m/s. How long would the rockets have to be fired for to accelerate the rocket to a speed of 50 m/s? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'9.52 s ','optionB':'10.3 s T ','optionC':'17.9 s ','optionD':'11.7 s '},{'text':'A tank, at rest, of mass 50 tonnes fires its main gun. The gun fires a shell of mass 20kg horizontally at a speed of 1 km/s. If we assume that no other forces are acting on the tank, how fast does it recoil from firing its gun? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'4 m/s ','optionB':'0.4 m/s T ','optionC':'0.0004 m/s ','optionD':'2 m/s '},{'text':'A boat of mass 1000kg is initially moving at 5 m/s on a perfectly smooth lake. To go faster, the crew put up a sail. The wind hitting this sail transfers 50N of force to the boat. After 5 minutes with the sail up, how fast is the boat now moving? You may assume that there are no forces acting on the boat other than the wind hitting the sail. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'5.25 m/s ','optionB':'155 m/s ','optionC':'20 m/s T ','optionD':'6.5 m/s '},{'text':'What are the units of linear momentum? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'m s kg^-1 ','optionB':'m^-1 s kg ','optionC':'m s^-1 kg T ','optionD':'m s-2 kg '},{'text':'Which is the correct definition of an elastic collision? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'linear momentum is not conserved ','optionB':'afterwards the two objects involved travel in opposite directions to one another ','optionC':'no loss of kinetic energy T ','optionD':'all kinetic energy is lost '},{'text':'A 1kg body travelling at 2 m/s collides inelastically with a 2kg body at rest. After the collision the 1kg body is at rest. How fast is the 2kg body moving after the collision? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.5 m/s ','optionB':'2 m/s ','optionC':'1 m/s ','optionD':'1.2 m/s '},{'text':'A ball of mass 0.75kg, moving at 25m/s, collides with a bat. It stays in contact with the bat for 0.01s and rebounds at a velocity of 35m/s in the opposite direction. What is the average magnitude of the force applied by the bat on the ball? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'3,500N ','optionB':'4,500N T ','optionC':'5,000N ','optionD':'4,000N '},{'text':'A car, of mass 1000kg, travelling at 20m/s collides with a concrete wall. It takes the car 0.5 seconds to come to a complete halt. Calculate the impact force of the crash. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'30,000N ','optionB':'40,000N T ','optionC':'20,000N ','optionD':'50,000N'},]


more_medical_quiz_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'If 80% of ultrasoundsound is reflected from a boundary, there is a ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'small difference in Z values of the two materials ','optionB':'no difference in Z values of the two materials ','optionC':'large difference in Z values of the two materials ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'Doppler ultrasound can be used to ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'check the speed of an ambulance ','optionB':'find the speed of blood in your arteries ','optionC':'measure the thickness of a bone ','optionD':'get a picture of the foetus '},{'text':'An A scan is used to ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'determine the width of organs ','optionB':'tell if you are pregnant ','optionC':'get a 2D picture ','optionD':'destroy a kidney stone '},{'text':'What is the role of the photomultiplier tubes in a gamma camera ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Convert gamma rays to visible light ','optionB':'Convert visible light to gamma rays ','optionC':'Convert gamma rays to electrical signals ','optionD':'Convert visible light to electrical signals '},{'text':'What is the role of the sodium iodide crystal (scintillator) in a gamma camera ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Convert gamma rays to visible light ','optionB':'Convert visible light to gamma rays ','optionC':'Convert gamma rays to electrical signals ','optionD':'Convert visible light to electrical signals '},{'text':'What is the role of the collimator in a gamma camera ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'To remove gamma rays with too high an energy ','optionB':'To remove gamma rays with too low an energy ','optionC':'To ensure that all the gamma rays are travelling parallel to one another ','optionD':'To create visible light from gamma rays '},{'text':'Which would be a suitable half life for a radiopharmaceutical ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'15 ms ','optionB':'67 s ','optionC':'6 hours ','optionD':'240 years '},{'text':'A radiopharmaceutical has a half life of a few hours. It therefore cannot be stored for very long in a hospital. How is this problem solved ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'By use of a generator, whereby some other isotope (with a longer half life) decays to produce the desired isotope ','optionB':'By production of the radioisotope each day within the hospitals own nuclear reactor ','optionC':'By fresh deliveries each day of the radiopharmaceutical ','optionD':'There is no solution '},{'text':'which would be suitable as a radiopharmaceutical ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'neutron emitter ','optionB':'beta plus emitter ','optionC':'beta minus emitter ','optionD':'alpha emitter '},{'text':'If 10% of ultrasoundsound is reflected from a boundary, there is a ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'small difference in Z values of the two materials ','optionB':'no difference in Z values of the two materials ','optionC':'large difference in Z values of the two materials ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'The process when an x-ray photon collides with an electron, with a change in direction but no change in energy .. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Photoelectric effect ','optionB':'Compton scattering ','optionC':'Simple elastic scattering ','optionD':'Pair production '},{'text':'The process when an x-ray photon collides with an electron, with a change in direction but no change in energy .. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Photoelectric effect ','optionB':'Compton scattering ','optionC':'Simple elastic scattering ','optionD':'Pair production '},{'text':'The process when an x-ray photon collides with an electron, the electron is ejected, and the photon is scattered at a lower energy .. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Photoelectric effect ','optionB':'Compton scattering ','optionC':'Simple elastic scattering ','optionD':'Pair production '},{'text':'The process when an x-ray photon collides with an electron, the electron is ejected, and the photon is completely absorbed .. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Photoelectric effect ','optionB':'Compton scattering ','optionC':'Simple elastic scattering ','optionD':'Pair production '},{'text':'The process which is the reverse of annihilation i.e. when an x-ray photon converts into an electron and positron ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Photoelectric effect ','optionB':'Compton scattering ','optionC':'Simple elastic scattering ','optionD':'Pair production '},{'text':'Thickness of lead required to absorb 99.99% of X-rays (attenuation coefficient = 342.6 cm^-1) is.. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.54 cm ','optionB':'0.27 cm ','optionC':'0.027 cm T ','optionD':'0.054 cm '},{'text':'To become a proton-anti-proton pair, what is the minimum energy a gamma ray photon must possess (mp ~ 1 GeV) ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'About 2 GeV T ','optionB':'About 2 MeV ','optionC':'About 10 GeV ','optionD':'About 2 TeV '},{'text':'In Compton scattering, what happens to the wavelength of the x-ray ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Increases ','optionB':'Decreases ','optionC':'No change ','optionD':'Either is possible '},{'text':'Derive the units for acoustic impedance. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'N/m^2 s ','optionB':'kg/ms^2 ','optionC':'kg/m^2 s T ','optionD':'Pa/ms '},{'text':'The density of sapphire is 3.99 g/cm^3, where the speed of ultrasound is 11km/s. What is the acoustic impedance? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'44 x 10^6 kg/m^2s T ','optionB':'440 x 10^6 kg/m^2s ','optionC':'14 x 10^6 kg/m^2s ','optionD':'4 x 10^5 kg/m^2s '},{'text':'X rays are formed by high energy electrons hitting ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'the vacuum tube ','optionB':'the anode ','optionC':'the cathode ','optionD':'another electron '},{'text':'The accelerating p.d. of an X ray tube controls the ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'maximum energy of the photon T ','optionB':'minimum energy of the photon ','optionC':'the maximum wavelength of the photon ','optionD':'number of photons emitted '},{'text':'The x-ray tube current controls ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'the minimum wavelength of the X ray photons ','optionB':'the maximum energy of the photons ','optionC':'time for X rays to come out ','optionD':'number of X ray photons emitted '},{'text':'An advantage of nuclear medicine over X rays is that it ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'is powerful ','optionB':'is quick ','optionC':'shows functionality T ','optionD':'is safer '},{'text':'Ultrasound scanning depends on ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'the photoelectric effect ','optionB':'the piezo-electric effect ','optionC':'having a baby ','optionD':'the pizza effect '},{'text':'Acoustic impedance is defined as ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'mass x speed of sound ','optionB':'the cost of your speakers ','optionC':'density x wavelength ','optionD':'density x speed of sound T '},{'text':'With Doppler ultrasound, the frequency shift is proportional to ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'speed of sound in the blood ','optionB':'the acoustic impedance ','optionC':'density of the blood ','optionD':'the speed of the blood '},{'text':'The safe imaging techniques are ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'X ray and ultrasound ','optionB':'MRI and ultrasound ','optionC':'CT and MRI ','optionD':'Nuclear medicine and CT '},{'text':'The attentuation coefficient of a material depends on ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The neutron number, and the energy of the x-ray photons ','optionB':'The density of the material, and the energy of the x-ray photons ','optionC':'The atomic number, and the density of the material ','optionD':'The atomic number, and the energy of the x-ray photons '},{'text':'The x-ray tube ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Vibrates and produces a rectangular shaped beam of x-rays ','optionB':'Rotates and produces a thin fan-shaped x-ray beam ','optionC':'Vibrates and produces a circular shaped beam of x-rays ','optionD':'Rotates and produces a wide fan-shaped x-ray beam '},{'text':'The coupling gel during an ultrasound scan has an acoustic impedance ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Very different to that of skin ','optionB':'Very similar to that of skin ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'?'},]


non_uniform_motion_quiz_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Consider two variable x and y. If they are related by the equation y = kx, where k is a constant, then we say that: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'y increases exponentially with x ','optionB':'y and x obey an inverse square law ','optionC':'y is inversely proportional to x ','optionD':'y is proportional to x T '},{'text':'Drag is proportional to: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'the density of an object ','optionB':'the length of an object ','optionC':'the frontal area of an object T ','optionD':'the volume of an object '},{'text':'Drag is proportional to frontal area. More specifically, drag is proportional to: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'the total surface area of the object ','optionB':'the surface area that is perpendicular to the direction of motion T ','optionC':'the surface area that is parallel to the direction of motion ','optionD':'half of the total surface area '},{'text':'Drag is also proportional to: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'the velocity ','optionB':'the velocity squared T ','optionC':'the velocity cubed ','optionD':'the square-root of the velocity '},{'text':'At t=3 seconds, an aid package has a drag force of 250 N. At t=9 s, the aid package has a drag force of 1000 N. Select the correct statement: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'As the drag force increases, the weight decreases. This means that the magnitude of the net force on the package will increase ','optionB':'As the drag force increases, the weight remains constant. This means that the magnitude of the net force on the package will increase ','optionC':'As the drag force increases, the weight decreases. This means that the magnitude of the net force on the package will decrease ','optionD':'As the drag force increases, the weight remains constant. This means that the magnitude of the net force on the package will decrease '},{'text':'',]


nuclear_energy_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'What is the binding energy? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The amount of energy required to bring a material to 100 degrees Celsius ','optionB':'The combined kinetic energy of all the electrons in an atom ','optionC':'The amount of energy required to separate a nucleus into constituent nucleons T ','optionD':'None of the above '},{'text':'Using E=mc^2 find the rest energy of a proton of mass 1.67x10^-27 kg ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.503x10^-10 J ','optionB':'1.397x10^-10 J ','optionC':'1.745x10^-10 J ','optionD':'1.144x10^-10 J '},{'text':'Which of these is a nucleon? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Gluon ','optionB':'Proton T ','optionC':'Electron ','optionD':'Quark '},{'text':'How does a nuclear fission power plant work? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Energy released by nuclear fusion generates high pressure steam, which drives turbines, which drive generators T ','optionB':'Energy released by nuclear fission generates high pressure steam, which drives turbines, which drive generators ','optionC':'Energy is released by nuclear fission and is absorbed by control rods which power generators ','optionD':'Energy is released by nuclear fission and is absorbed by control rods which power generators '},{'text':'What fuel is usually used in nuclear power plants? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Uranium-236 ','optionB':'Uranium-235 T ','optionC':'Uranium-238 ','optionD':'Plutonium-239 '},{'text':'In a nuclear reactor, what is the purpose of the moderator? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'To act as a shield around the reactor core ','optionB':'To monitor the reactions ','optionC':'To release neutrons ','optionD':'To slow down neutrons T '},{'text':'Fuel in which the percentage of uranium-235 has been increased is known as what? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Depleted nuclear fuel ','optionB':'Enriched nuclear fuel T ','optionC':'Ionised nuclear fuel ','optionD':'Enhanced nuclear fuel '},{'text':'Which material is used to make moderators in some nuclear power plants? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Graphite T ','optionB':'Aluminium ','optionC':'Cadmium ','optionD':'Boron '},{'text':'Out of what material are control rods usually made? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Boron T ','optionB':'Carbon ','optionC':'Lead ','optionD':'Iron '},{'text':'How many MeV are there in 1 u (atomic mass unit)? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.9313 ','optionB':'93.13 ','optionC':'93130 ','optionD':'931.3 T '},{'text':'A neutron is emitted from a fission reactor with an energy of 1.6x10-12 J. What is this in eV? (1 eV = 1.6x10^-19 J) ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'6.25x10^25 eV ','optionB':'6.25x10^22 eV ','optionC':'10 keV ','optionD':'10 MeV T '},{'text':'What is induced fission? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The bombardment of a fissile material with neutrons T ','optionB':'The bombardment of a fissile material with gamma rays ','optionC':'The bombardment of a fissile material with protons ','optionD':'The bombardment of a fissile material with electrons '},{'text':'What is the meaning of critical mass? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The average mass of an element ','optionB':'The largest stable mass of an element ','optionC':'The smallest mass for which a chain reaction can be sustained T ','optionD':'The largest mass for which a chain reaction can be sustained '},{'text':'What causes chain reactions during fission reactions? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The release of neutrinos ','optionB':'The release of beta particles ','optionC':'The release of gamma rays ','optionD':'The release of neutrons T '},{'text':'In a reactor, what is the purpose of control rods? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'To slow down neutrons ','optionB':'To act as a shield around the reactor core ','optionC':'To absorb neutrons T ','optionD':'To release neutrons '},{'text':'The binding energy is the best indicator of the stability of an isotope. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'T ','optionB':'F T ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'The binding energy per nucleon is the best indicator of the stability of an isotope. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'T T ','optionB':'F ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'What occurs during nuclear fission? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2 light nuclei join to make a more massive one ','optionB':'A nucleus spontaneously decays, releasing a helium nucleus ','optionC':'A heavy nucleus splits into 2 roughly equal products with the release of additional neutrons T ','optionD':'A nucleus spontaneously decays, releasing an electron '},{'text':'Carbon-12 has a mass difference of approximately 2x10^-29 kg. What is its binding energy? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'6x10^-21 eV ','optionB':'1.8x10^-12 eV ','optionC':'1.8x10^-12 J T ','optionD':'6x10^-21 J '},{'text':'Which of the following has the most binding energy per nucleon? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Carbon-12 ','optionB':'Nickel-56 ','optionC':'Manganese-55 ','optionD':'Iron-56 T '},{'text':'What occurs during nuclear fusion? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'A nucleus emits gamma rays ','optionB':'A nucleus decays into 2 roughly equal fragments ','optionC':'2 light nuclei join to form a more massive one with the release of energy ','optionD':'A nucleus absorbs a neutron '},{'text':'How does a nuclear fission power plant work? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Energy is released by nuclear fission and is absorbed by control rods which power generators ','optionB':'Energy released by nuclear fission generates high pressure steam, which drives turbines, which drive generators T ','optionC':'Energy released by nuclear fusion generates high pressure steam, which drives turbines, which drive generators ','optionD':'None of the above'},]


nuclear_structure_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Before Rutherfords experiment, how was an atom described? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Trifle ','optionB':'Spotted dick ','optionC':'Plum pudding T ','optionD':'Roly poly '},{'text':'What is an isotope? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Atoms of different elements with the same number of neutrons ','optionB':'Atoms of the same element with a different number of electrons ','optionC':'Atoms of the same element with a different number of neutrons T ','optionD':'Atoms of the same element with a different number of protons '},{'text':'In Rutherfords experiment, what would happen when an alpha particle would hit the zinc sulphide screen? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The screen would be disentegrated ','optionB':'It would bounce back ','optionC':'It would be deflected ','optionD':'The screen would emit light T '},{'text':'What is the atomic number? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Proton Number T ','optionB':'Mass Number ','optionC':'Nucleon Number ','optionD':'Electron number '},{'text':'Of what order of magnitude is the radius of a gold nucleus? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Femtometres T ','optionB':'Micrometers ','optionC':'Nanometres ','optionD':'Angstroms '},{'text':'In Rutherfords experiment, what is the purpose of the zinc sulphide screen? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'It is the source of alpha particles ','optionB':'It acts as a detector for alpha particles T ','optionC':'It deflects alpha particles ','optionD':'It shields the observers from alpha particles '},{'text':'What material did Rutherford use as a target for his alpha particles? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Aluminium ','optionB':'Gold T ','optionC':'Silver ','optionD':'Lead '},{'text':'What is the dependence of the radius of a nucleus on the nucleon number? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'R = r0 / A^(1/3) ','optionB':'R = r0 A ','optionC':'R = r0 A^(1/3) T ','optionD':'R = r0 A^3 '},{'text':'How many neutrons in a hydrogen atom? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0 T ','optionB':'3 ','optionC':'1 ','optionD':'2 '},{'text':'What did Rutherford's experiment of 1909, where alpha particles where fired at thin gold foil, demonstrate? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Photons are massless ','optionB':'Atoms have neutral charge ','optionC':'Atoms contain a very small and dense nucleus which is positively charged T ','optionD':'Electrons have negative charge'},]


ohms_law_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'What is Ohms law? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Resistance is proportional to current ','optionB':'Current is inversely proportional to voltage ','optionC':'Resistance is inversely proportional to voltage ','optionD':'Current is proportional to voltage T '},{'text':'A 250O resistor and a 750 Ohm resistor are connected in series with a 8V battery of negligible internal resistance. What is the potential difference across the 250 Ohm resistor? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'6V ','optionB':'4V ','optionC':'2V T ','optionD':'8V '},{'text':'Three resistors, of resistance 4k Ohm, 1k Ohm and 7k Ohm respectively, are connected in series with a supply voltage of 4V. What is the potential difference across the 7k Ohm resistor? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2.7V ','optionB':'2.3V T ','optionC':'2.5V ','optionD':'2.1V '},{'text':'Three resistors, of resistance 4k Ohm, 1k Ohm and 7k Ohm respectively, are connected in series with a supply voltage of 4V. What is the potential difference across the 1k Ohm resistor? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.3V T ','optionB':'0.9V ','optionC':'0.1V ','optionD':'0.6V '},{'text':'A thermistor has a resistance of 2,000 Ohms when it is at room temperature. If a voltage source of 5V is connected in series with the thermistor what current flows in the circuit? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'4.5 mA ','optionB':'2.5 mA T ','optionC':'1.5 mA ','optionD':'3.5 mA '},{'text':'What is the definition of resistance? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'R = V/Q ','optionB':'R = I/V ','optionC':'R = Q/V ','optionD':'R = V/I T '},{'text':'Because its resistance decreases with temperature what type of coefficient is a semiconductor said to have? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Positive temperature coefficient ','optionB':'Increasing thermoresistance coefficient ','optionC':'Decreasing thermoresistance coefficient ','optionD':'Negative temperature coefficient T '},{'text':'What happens to the resistance of these two components as their temperature rises? A. Metal wire , B. Intrinsic semiconductor ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'A. Decreases , B. Decreases ','optionB':'A. Increases , B. Decreases T ','optionC':'A. Increases , B. Increases ','optionD':'A. Decreases , B. Increases '},{'text':'A resistor (3kOhms) is measured by a voltmeter to have a potential difference of 5V across it. What is the current through the resistor? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.67 mA T ','optionB':'1.85 mA ','optionC':'0.92 mA ','optionD':'1.18 mA '},{'text':'A steady current, of 0.3A, flows through a resistor over a period of 2 minutes. If the resistor has resistance 3 Ohms what is the voltage across the resistor? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.9V T ','optionB':'0.3V ','optionC':'3V ','optionD':'9V '},{'text':'A graph of voltage across a resistor (y-axis) against current through the resistor (x-axis) is drawn. How would you find the resistance of the resistor from the graph? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Inverse of the gradient ','optionB':'Maximum value of current multiplied by minimum value of voltage ','optionC':'Gradient T ','optionD':'Area under the graph'},]


orbits_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Which kind of orbit would be most suitable for a satellite monitoring the Earths weather? For example making temperature measurements of the Earths surface. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'A low orbit with a high orbital speed T ','optionB':'A geostationary orbit ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'If the Earth orbits the sun (mass 2 x 10^30 kg) in a perfect circle at a constant speed of 30 km/s, what is its orbital radius? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'7.8 x 10^9 m ','optionB':'1.1 x 10^15 m ','optionC':'1.5 x 10^11 m T ','optionD':'4.4 x 10^15 m '},{'text':'Which kind of satellite orbit would be appropriate for a satellite relaying television pictures? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'A low orbit with a high orbital speed ','optionB':'A geostationary orbit T ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'Which of the following is the correct definition of the speed of an object in a circular orbit, of radius r, around a body with mass M? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'v=root(GM/r) T ','optionB':'v=root(2GM/r) ','optionC':'v=GM/r ','optionD':'v=2GM/r'},]


particle_physics_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'What is the antiparticle for a proton? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Electron ','optionB':'Antipositron ','optionC':'Positron ','optionD':'Antiproton T '},{'text':'What is the baryon number for the up quark? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'plus one half ','optionB':'plus one ','optionC':'plus one third T ','optionD':'plus two thirds '},{'text':'All mesons are made up of what combination of quarks and antiquarks? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1, 1 T ','optionB':'2, 1 ','optionC':'0, 2 ','optionD':'2, 0 '},{'text':'What quarks make up a proton? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2 ups, 1 strange ','optionB':'1 up, 1 down, 1 strange ','optionC':'2 ups, 1 down T ','optionD':'1 up, 2 downs '},{'text':'What is the baryon number of any antiquark? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'minus 1 ','optionB':'plus 1/3 ','optionC':'plus 1 ','optionD':'minus 1/3 T '},{'text':'What is emitted during beta minus decay? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'An electron and a neutrino ','optionB':'A helium nucleus ','optionC':'An electron and an antineutrino T ','optionD':'A neutron '},{'text':'What is gamma radiation? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The release of high frequency electromagnetic rays T ','optionB':'The release of an electron ','optionC':'The release of a neutron ','optionD':'The release of a helium nucleus '},{'text':'Which of these would not be found inside a nucleus? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Neutron ','optionB':'Quark ','optionC':'Lepton T ','optionD':'Proton '},{'text':'When an electron is produced during beta decay the weak force changes the character of a quark. What is that change? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Down to Antidown ','optionB':'Up to Antiup ','optionC':'Up to Strange ','optionD':'Down to Up T '},{'text':'What is the charge and strangeness of a positive kaon made up of an up quark and an antistrange? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Q = +2/3, S = -1 ','optionB':'Q = +1 , S=-1 ','optionC':'Q = +2/3 , S=+1 ','optionD':'Q=+1 , S=+1 T '},{'text':'A positron and electron annihilate each other. Calculate the minimum energy of each photon produced. Rest energy of an electron = 0.511MeV ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.511 MeV T ','optionB':'1.022 MeV ','optionC':'0.256 MeV ','optionD':'0.835 MeV '},{'text':'What is the lepton number for a positron? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2 ','optionB':'minus 1.0 T ','optionC':'plus 1.0 ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'What are the properties of a particles antiparticle? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Different mass, opposite charge ','optionB':'Different mass, same charge ','optionC':'Same mass, same charge ','optionD':'Same mass, opposite charge T '},{'text':'Which of these are the two types of hadron? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Baryons and Mesons T ','optionB':'Baryons and Muons ','optionC':'Muons and Leptons ','optionD':'Muons and Mesons '},{'text':'What is the only stable baryon? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Proton T ','optionB':'Neutron ','optionC':'Pion ','optionD':'Meson '},{'text':'Which of these is not a lepton? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Photon T ','optionB':'Tau ','optionC':'Electron ','optionD':'Neutrino '},{'text':'What baryon number do antibaryons have? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'plus 2.0 ','optionB':'zero ','optionC':'plus 1.0 ','optionD':'minus 1.0 T '},{'text':'What baryon number does a neutron have? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'plus 1 T ','optionB':'plus one half ','optionC':'minus one ','optionD':'zero '},{'text':'What is the charge on a strange quark? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Plus one third ','optionB':'Zero ','optionC':'Minus one third T ','optionD':'plus two thirds '},{'text':'What quarks make up a neutron? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1 up, 2 downs T ','optionB':'3 ups, 1 strange ','optionC':'2 up, 1 down, 1 strange ','optionD':'3 downs '},{'text':'What is the lepton number of an electron neutrino? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Minus one ','optionB':'Plus one T ','optionC':'-0.000001 ','optionD':'0.000001 '},{'text':'Which of these has the largest mass? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Up Quark ','optionB':'Down Quark ','optionC':'Electron ','optionD':'Proton T '},{'text':'What type of particle has an antiparticle? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Nucleons ','optionB':'Baryons ','optionC':'Every particle has an antiparticle. T ','optionD':'Leptons '},{'text':'What is the minimum number of quarks that can be observed in isolation? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1 ','optionB':'2 T ','optionC':'3 ','optionD':'4 '},{'text':'A neutron is observed decaying into a proton and an electron. Is this interaction possible? If not then why? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Lepton number is not conserved. T ','optionB':'Charge is not conserved ','optionC':'The number of particles at the end is greater than at the start ','optionD':'Baryon number is not conserved'},]


pressure_quiz_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Select the statement that displays correctly the equation and S.I. derived unit of pressure. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Pressure = Force / Area. Units: [Pa] T ','optionB':'Pressure = Force * Area. Units: [Pa] ','optionC':'Pressure = Force / Volume. Units: [N m^-3] ','optionD':'Pressure = Force * Volume. Units: [N m^3] '},{'text':'The SI derived unit of pressure is Pascals, Pa. Identify an equivalent unit for pressure ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'N m^-2 T ','optionB':'J ','optionC':'W ','optionD':'Pa '},{'text':'Pressure is defined as force per unit area. Select the correct definition of unit area when using S.I units. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':' When using SI units, unit area means 10 S.I unit. Therefore a unit area means 10 cm^2. ','optionB':'When using SI units, unit area means 1 S.I unit. Therefore a unit area means 1 m^2. T ','optionC':'When using SI units, unit area means 1 S.I unit. Therefore a unit area means 1 cm^2. ','optionD':'When using SI units, unit area means 10 S.I unit. Therefore a unit area means 10 m^2. '},{'text':'Two boxes (Box A and Box B) are resting on the ground. Each box has an area of 1 m^2 in contact with the ground. Box A has a weight of 100 N. Box B has a weight of 500 N. Select the correct statement: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Box B applies a greater pressure to the ground than Box A because it applies a higher force per unit area T ','optionB':'Box A applies a greater pressure to the ground than Box B because it applies a higher force per unit area ','optionC':'Box B applies a greater pressure to the ground than Box A because it applies a lower force per unit area ','optionD':'The boxes apply the same pressure '},{'text':'Two boxes (Box A and Box B) are resting on the ground. Each box has a weight of 100 N. Box A has a base area of 0.5 m^2. Box B has a base area of 2 m^2. Select the correct statement: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Box B applies a greater pressure to the ground than Box A because it applies a higher force per unit area ','optionB':'Box A applies a greater pressure to the ground than Box B because it applies a higher force per unit area T ','optionC':'Box B applies a greater pressure to the ground than Box A because it applies a lower force per unit area ','optionD':'The boxes apply the same pressure '},{'text':'Two boxes (Box A and Box B) are resting on the ground. Box A has a weight of 100 N and a base area of 2 m^2. Box B has a weight of 500 N and a base area of 10 m^2. Select the correct statement: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Box B applies a greater pressure to the ground than Box A because it applies a higher force per unit area ','optionB':'Box A applies a greater pressure to the ground than Box B because it applies a higher force per unit area ','optionC':'Box B applies a greater pressure to the ground than Box A because it applies a lower force per unit area ','optionD':'The boxes apply the same pressure T '},{'text':'A small submarine of mass 100kg is placed into a test pool and displaces 3m^3 of water. Calculate the upthrust on the submarine. The density of water is 1x10^3 kgm-3. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'981 N ','optionB':'3000 N ','optionC':'22540 N ','optionD':'29430 N T'},]


projectiles_quiz_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'A bullet is fired at a speed of 940 m s-1 in the horizontal plane, with an initial vertical speed of 0ms^-1. The gun is fired from a raised platform. The bullet travels 300m in the horizontal plane before hitting the ground.  Calculate the height of the platform.  You may ignore air resistance. We define upwards as positive. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.1 m ','optionB':'0.3 m ','optionC':'0.5 m ','optionD':'0.8 m '},{'text':' A tennis ball is hit such that it follows a projectile motion with initial speed of 12ms^-1 at an angle of 50 degrees to the horizontal. Calculate the time of flight of the tennis ball. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.79s ','optionB':'0.94s ','optionC':'1.57s ','optionD':'1.88s T '},{'text':'An artillery shell is launched into the Pacific Ocean. The shell is launched at an angle of 60 degrees and at an initial speed of 40 ms^-1. Calculate the horizontal displacement of the shell at the point it hits the water. You can ignore air resistance. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'71 m ','optionB':'141 m ','optionC':'223 m ','optionD':'386 m '},{'text':'Tom is playing in a paintball tournament. He is lying flat on top of a raised 5m high platform above a field with his gun such that the barrel is perfectly horizontal to the platform and ground. A small contraption is attached to the gun that releases a blue paintball vertically at the exact moment a red paintball is fired in the horizontal direction. The initial force exerted on the blue paintball is only that of gravity. Which of the following statements is correct? You can ignore air resistance. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The blue paintball will reach the ground before the red paintball because it has to travel less distance ','optionB':'The blue paintball will reach the ground after the red paintball because the red paintball is travelling much faster ','optionC':'The blue paintball will reach the ground at the same time as the red paintball because the higher speed of the red paintball is compensated by the smaller distance of travel of the blue paintball ','optionD':'The blue paintball will reach the ground at the same time as the red paintball because the vertical acceleration is the same on both paintballs T '},{'text':'A golf ball is hit at an initial speed of 50ms^-1 at an angle of 35 degrees from the ground. By considering both the horizontal and vertical speed after 2 seconds, calculate the resultant speed of the ball after 2 seconds? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'42.0 ms^-1 T ','optionB':'49.1 ms^-1 ','optionC':'54.7 ms^-1 ','optionD':'63.4 ms^-1'},]


projectiles_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Derive an expression for the vertical velocity of a projectile at any time t. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'vsinA +gt ','optionB':'vsinA + gt^2 ','optionC':'vsinA ','optionD':'VsinA -gt T '},{'text':'A cannon ball is fired horizontally at an initial velocity of 12m/s from the top of a cliff of height 25m. How far does the cannon ball travel from the cliff (x) before hitting the water? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'30.6 m/s ','optionB':'27.1 m T ','optionC':'34.5 m/s ','optionD':'37.8 m/s '},{'text':'A cannon ball is fired horizontally at an initial velocity of 12m/s from the top of a cliff of height 25m. What is the magnitude of the cannon balls final velocity? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'21.6m/s ','optionB':'25.2m/s T ','optionC':'29.9m/s ','optionD':'19.5m/s '},{'text':'A slingshot fires a ball, of mass 0.2kg, at 17.7m/s. If the slingshot is fired at 30 degrees to the horizontal what height does the ball reach? It starts at a height of 0m. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'3.26m ','optionB':'3.99m T ','optionC':'3.54m ','optionD':'3.85m '},{'text':'A cannon ball is fired at an angle A above the horizontal, at a velocity v. Derive the formula for the vertical displacement of the cannon ball (Ignore the effects of air resistance). ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'y = vcos(A)t ','optionB':'y = v sin(A) t - (1/2)gt^2 T ','optionC':'y = v sin(A) t ','optionD':'y = v cos(A) t - (1/2) g t '},{'text':'A cannon ball is fired horizontally at an initial velocity of 12m/s from the top of a cliff of height 25m. What is the final horizontal velocity of the cannon ball before hitting the water? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'6m/s ','optionB':'12m/s T ','optionC':'10m/s ','optionD':'8m/s '},{'text':'An arrow is fired at 45m/s at an angle of 40 degrees. After 2 seconds what is the distance travelled in the horizontal direction by the arrow? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'92.7m ','optionB':'65.8m ','optionC':'86.3m ','optionD':'68.9m T '},{'text':'A cannon ball is fired at an angle A above the horizontal, at a velocity v. Derive the formula for the horizontal displacement in a time t. (Ignore the effects of air resistance) ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'x = vsin(A)t^2 ','optionB':'x = vcos(A)t^2 ','optionC':'x = vsin(A)t ','optionD':'x = vcos(A)t T'},]


quantum_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'What is the wavelength of a photon of energy 1.022MeV? (Plancks constant = 6.63x10^-34) ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.05pm ','optionB':'1.36pm ','optionC':'1.22pm T ','optionD':'1.51pm '},{'text':'Which of these can not be explained by a particle theory of light? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Velocity ','optionB':'Interference T ','optionC':'Refraction ','optionD':'Reflection '},{'text':'What happens in the process of ionisation by an electromagnetic wave? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Electrons increase energy level ','optionB':'Matter heats up as atoms are knocked ','optionC':'Electrons decrease energy level ','optionD':'Electrons are knocked from atoms T '},{'text':'What is de Broglies relation? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'E=mc^2 ','optionB':'lamda = h / p T ','optionC':'p = mv ','optionD':'v = f lamda '},{'text':'A laser has a power of 6.1W and produces photons of energy 5.85x10-19J. How many photons are emitted per second? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2.53x10^19 ','optionB':'4.27x10^19 ','optionC':'1.04x10^19 T ','optionD':'3.96x10^19 '},{'text':'A radio wave emitter has a power of 5.1 mW. What is the total number of photons emitted over a period of a minute if the photons have energy of 1.6 x 20^-27J each? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'5.72x10^28 ','optionB':'9.35x10^29 ','optionC':'2.16x10^21 ','optionD':'1.91x10^26 T '},{'text':'An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 1 Volt. What is its change in kinetic energy? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1eV ','optionB':'4eV ','optionC':'9eV ','optionD':'1.6x10^-19eV '},{'text':'The frequency below which no electrons are emitted from a metal surface is ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'minimum frequency ','optionB':'angular frequency ','optionC':'maximum frequency ','optionD':'threshold frequency T '},{'text':'The wavelength of a 65 kg person running at a speed of 3 m s^-1 through an opening of width 0.80 m is ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'34 m ','optionB':'35 m ','optionC':'3.4 x 10^-36 m T ','optionD':'3.5 m '},{'text':'Electron diffraction and electron interference is evidence of electrons behaving as ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'particles ','optionB':'waves T ','optionC':'particles and waves ','optionD':'rays '},{'text':'The energy of a photon is directly related to the.. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'wavelength ','optionB':'wave number ','optionC':'frequency T ','optionD':'amplitude '},{'text':'When a charged particle is accelerated through a potential difference V, its kinetic energy ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'decreases ','optionB':'remains constant ','optionC':'increases T ','optionD':'varies '},{'text':'The energy of an electron in an atom is ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'quantised T ','optionB':'continuous ','optionC':'radial ','optionD':'randomised '},{'text':'1 eV is equal to ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.6 x 10^-19 J T ','optionB':'2.0 x 10^-20 J ','optionC':'3 J ','optionD':'4 J '},{'text':'Electrons through graphite show diffraction effects because their de Broglie wavelength is similar to ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'spacing between atomic layers T ','optionB':'no. of atomic layers ','optionC':'nature of atomic layers ','optionD':'positioning of atomic layers '},{'text':'Planks constant has units ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'J ','optionB':'s ','optionC':'J s^-1 ','optionD':'J s T '},{'text':'A quantum or packet of electromagnetic energy is called ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'particle ','optionB':'photon T ','optionC':'wave ','optionD':'energy '},{'text':'In the photoelectric effect, electrons are removed from the ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'inner shells of the metal atoms ','optionB':'surface of the metal T ','optionC':'core ','optionD':'nuclei of the metal atoms '},{'text':'How does the momentum of a photon change if the wavelength is halved? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Halves ','optionB':'Doubles T ','optionC':'Quadruples ','optionD':'No change '},{'text':'The photoelectric effect was explained by Albert Einstein by assuming that: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'light is a wave ','optionB':'light is a particle T ','optionC':'an electron behaves as a wave ','optionD':'an electron behaves as a particle. '},{'text':'The kinetic energy of photoelectrons depends on the: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'speed of light ','optionB':'angle of illumination ','optionC':'intensity of the light ','optionD':'photon frequency T '},{'text':'Which one of the following objects, moving at the same speed, has the greatest de Broglie wavelength? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Neutron ','optionB':'Electron T ','optionC':'Tennis ball ','optionD':'Bowling ball '},{'text':'What is the relationship between work function and threshold frequency ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'work function = Ek - hf0 ','optionB':'work function = hf0 T ','optionC':'work function = h / f0 ','optionD':'work function = f0/h '},{'text':'In a photoelectric experiment, light is incident on the metal surface of a photocell causing the emission of photoelectrons. Increasing the intensity of the illumination at the surface leads to an increase in the ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'work function ','optionB':'threshold frequency ','optionC':'current through the photocell T ','optionD':'speed of the electrons '},{'text':'The energy associated with two electron energy levels in a hydrogen atom are -3.4 MeV and -13.6 MeV. What is the wavelength of radiation emitted when an electron makes a jump from the first one to the second one? (1eV = 1.6 x 10^-19J) ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2.0 x 10^-26m ','optionB':'2.0 x 10^-32m ','optionC':'1.2 x 10^-19m T ','optionD':'1.2 x 10^-13m'},]


radioactivity_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'What fundamental force is needed for beta decay to occur? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Weak T ','optionB':'Electromagnetic ','optionC':'Gravity ','optionD':'Strong '},{'text':'A nucleus of nucleon number A and proton number Z undergoes gamma radiation. What are the new nucleon and mass numbers for the output nucleus? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'A - 4, Z -2 ','optionB':'A, Z T ','optionC':'A, Z + 1 ','optionD':'A -1, Z '},{'text':'What will the activity be, as a multiple of its original value, after 3 half-lives? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Twice ','optionB':'One quarter ','optionC':'One half ','optionD':'One eighth T '},{'text':'What equation would you use to calculate half-life? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'T=ln2 lamda ','optionB':'T = lamda N ','optionC':'T = T0 e ^ (-lamda t) ','optionD':'T = ln2 / lamda T '},{'text':'What is half-life? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The number of isotopes ','optionB':'The mass of the elements nucleus ','optionC':'The time it takes for an element to decay to half its original activity T ','optionD':'The number of electrons '},{'text':'What would you use to measure background radiation? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'A potentiometer ','optionB':'A Newton meter ','optionC':'An ammeter ','optionD':'A Geiger counter T '},{'text':'How is activity defined? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'A = lamda^2 N ','optionB':'A = ln2 / lamda ','optionC':'A = lamda / N ','optionD':'A = lamda N T '},{'text':'How do beta particles behave in electric and magnetic fields? T ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'They are weakly deflected ','optionB':'They are strongly deflected ','optionC':'They are deflected with medium strength ','optionD':'They are undeviated '},{'text':'What is the ionising effect of alpha particles? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Intensely ionising T ','optionB':'Medium ionising effect ','optionC':'Weakly ionising ','optionD':'No ionising effect '},{'text':'Out of alpha, beta and gamma radiation, which is the most penetrating? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Beta ','optionB':'Alpha ','optionC':'Gamma T ','optionD':'They are all equally penetrating '},{'text':'What is a beta particle? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'An electron T ','optionB':'A proton ','optionC':'A neutron ','optionD':'A helium nucleus '},{'text':'Which of the following is an example of exponential decay? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The activity of a radioactive source ','optionB':'The number of nuclei in a radioactive source ','optionC':'The charge on a discharging capacitor ','optionD':'All of the above T '},{'text':'The activity of a source is the number of decays that occur per second. True or false? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'T T ','optionB':'F ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'How does nuclear radiation affect matter? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'It destroys it ','optionB':'It ionises it T ','optionC':'It breaks it up ','optionD':'It deflects it '},{'text':'As time goes by, the number of radioactive nuclei in a sample will decrease. What sort of decay is this? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Inverse decay ','optionB':'Exponential decay T ','optionC':'Alpha decay ','optionD':'Linear decay '},{'text':'How do gamma rays behave in electric and magnetic fields? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'They are not deflected at all T ','optionB':'They are weakly deflected ','optionC':'They are deflected with medium strength ','optionD':'They are strongly deflected '},{'text':'What is the ionising effect of gamma rays? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Intensely ionising ','optionB':'Weakly ionising T ','optionC':'No ionising effect ','optionD':'Medium ionising effect '},{'text':'The activity of a source is the number of decays that occur per second. True or false? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'T T ','optionB':'F ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'Assuming standard conditions, which of the following forms of radiation follows the inverse square law? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Gamma T ','optionB':'Alpha ','optionC':'Beta ','optionD':'None of the above '},{'text':'What is the range of beta radiation in air? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'A few metres T ','optionB':'A few hundred metres ','optionC':'A few hundred kilometres ','optionD':'A few cm '},{'text':'What gives stable nuclei their stability? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The strength of the strong nuclear force T ','optionB':'The number of electrons ','optionC':'Their abundance in nature ','optionD':'Their valency '},{'text':'In the equation T = ln2 / lambda, what does lambda stand for? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Activity ','optionB':'Decay constant ','optionC':'Half-life ','optionD':'Number of nuclei '},{'text':'What is an isotope? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Atoms of different elements with the same number of neutrons ','optionB':'Atoms of the same element with a different number of protons ','optionC':'Atoms of the same element with a different number of electrons ','optionD':'Atoms of the same element with a different number of neutrons T '},{'text':'On a ln(activity) vs. time graph, how would you find the half life? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Taking the gradient ','optionB':'Taking natural logs of the gradient ','optionC':'Taking the y intercept ','optionD':'Taking -ln(2) divided by the gradient T '},{'text':'Which of the following log rules is true? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'log(A B)=log(A+B) ','optionB':'log(A B)=log(A)+log(B) T ','optionC':'log (A B) = log (A/B) ','optionD':'log(A B)=log(A)-log(B) '},{'text':'What is an ion? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'A charged atom T ','optionB':'A heavy atom ','optionC':'Electromagnetic radiation ','optionD':'A massless particle '},{'text':'Define the inverse square law. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'I = k /x^2 T ','optionB':'I = k / 2x ','optionC':'I = k x ','optionD':'I = k x^2 '},{'text':'Which is the least interacting form radiation? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Beta ','optionB':'Alpha ','optionC':'Gamma ','optionD':'X-ray '},{'text':'What is the charge on a down quark as a fraction of a protons charge? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Plus two thirds ','optionB':'Minus one third T ','optionC':'Zero ','optionD':'Plus one thid '},{'text':'What is the baryon number for the up quark? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Plus one ','optionB':'Plus two thirds ','optionC':'Plus one third T ','optionD':'Plus one half '},{'text':'What is the range of alpha radiation in air? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Hundreds of kilometres ','optionB':'A few cm T ','optionC':'Hundreds of metres ','optionD':'A few metres '},{'text':'Which of the following factors influence the rate of decay? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Temperature ','optionB':'Pressure ','optionC':'Light intensity ','optionD':'None of the above T '},{'text':'What is the activity of a radioactive source? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The time it will take for the source to halve in mass ','optionB':'The number of neutrons ','optionC':'The number of decays per unit time T ','optionD':'The mass of the source '},{'text':'What is half-life? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The number of isotopes ','optionB':'The time it takes for an isotope to decay to half its original activity T ','optionC':'The mass of the elements nucleus ','optionD':'The number of electrons '},{'text':'The decay rate is proportional to what? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The mass number ','optionB':'The half-life ','optionC':'The atomic number ','optionD':'The number of nuclei T '},{'text':'How do alpha particles behave in electric and magnetic fields? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'They are deflected weakly T ','optionB':'They arent deflected ','optionC':'They are deflected with medium strength ','optionD':'They are deflected strongly '},{'text':'What is the meaning of the decay constant? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The probability that a nucleus will decay per unit time T ','optionB':'The number of decays that occur per second ','optionC':'The number of nuclei in a sample ','optionD':'The time it takes for the number of nuclei to halve'},]


radiopharmaceuticals_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Gamma radiation can be used in a medical setting. Identify the statement that correctly describes the use of gamma radiation in hospitals. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Gamma radiation is used in diagnosis and therapy T ','optionB':'Gamma radiation is used in just diagnosis ','optionC':'Gamma radiation is used in just therapy ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'Which of the below is the common radioisotope used to produce gamma radiation in hospitals? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Molybdenum-99m ','optionB':'Molybdenum-99 ','optionC':'Technetium-99m T ','optionD':'Technetium-99 '},{'text':'Which of the following is technetium-99m produced from, following radioactive decay? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Uranium-99 ','optionB':'Uranium-99m ','optionC':'Molybdenum-99m ','optionD':'Molybdenum-99 T '},{'text':'Weve just seen that molybdenum-99 decays into technetium-99m. How does molybdenum decay into technetium-99m? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Beta positive decay ','optionB':'Beta negative decay T ','optionC':'Alpha decay ','optionD':'Gamma decay '},{'text':'Why is gamma decay used in patients during gamma imaging, rather than alpha or beta decay? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Gamma radiation is the most ionising and therefore produced the brightest image ','optionB':'Gamma decay has a much shorter half-life than alpha or beta decay ','optionC':'Gamma radiation is the least ionising and therefore most likely to leave the body without interacting with the patients body T ','optionD':'Gamma radiation has the lowest intensity and therefore is most likely to leave the body without causing damage to the patients body '},{'text':'Are radioisotopes such as technetium-99m introduced into the patients body on their own, or are they combined with other elements? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'They are introduced on their own ','optionB':'They are combined with other elements T ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'Identify the option corresponding to the correct expansion of the acronym PET. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Positron Emission Tomography T ','optionB':'Positron Electron Tomography ','optionC':'Position Electron Tomography ','optionD':'Positron Electron Topography '},{'text':'Identify the correct statement about the radioactive decay of fluorine-18 from the options below. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Fluorine-18, which has a half-life of 25 minutes, undergoes beta positive decay to form radon-18. ','optionB':'Fluorine-18, which has a half-life of 25 minutes, undergoes beta positive decay to form oxygen-18. ','optionC':'Fluorine-18, which has a half-life of 110 minutes, undergoes beta positive decay to form radon-18. ','optionD':'Fluorine-18, which has a half-life of 110 minutes, undergoes beta positive decay to form oxygen-18. T '},{'text':'Identify the correct statement about PET scanners from the options below. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Most PET scanners use a medical tracer called fluoroedenitroglucose (or FDG), formed when fluorine-18 replaces the central nitrogen atom in glucose. ','optionB':'Most PET scanners use a medical tracer called fluoroedeoxyglucose (or FDG), formed when fluorine-18 replaces the central oxygen atom in glucose. T ','optionC':'Most PET scanners use a medical tracer called fluoroedeoxyglycine (or FDG), formed when fluorine-18 replaces the central oxygen atom in glycine. ','optionD':'Most PET scanners use a medical tracer called fluoroedenitroglycine (or FDG), formed when fluorine-18 replaces the central nitrogen atom in glycine. '},{'text':'The fluorine-18 in the FDG is unstable and will radioactively decay, releasing positrons from the beta-positive decay. Identify the correct statement about the positron emission process from the options below. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The positrons react with electrons ~1 mm of the radioactive source, producing two gamma photons that always propagate in the same direction. ','optionB':'The positrons react with protons ~1 mm of the radioactive source, producing two gamma photons that always propagate in the same direction. ','optionC':'The positrons react with electrons ~1 mm of the radioactive source, producing two gamma photons that always propagate in opposite directions. T ','optionD':'The positrons react with protons ~1 mm of the radioactive source, producing two gamma photons that always propagate in opposite directions. '},{'text':'When a positron meets an electron, they annihilate each other to release two gamma ray photons that always move in opposite directions. Identify the conservation law that is responsible for the fact that the two emitted photons always move in opposite directions from the options below. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Conservation of charge ','optionB':'Conservation of mass ','optionC':'Conservation of energy ','optionD':'Conservation of momentum T '},{'text':'The rest energy of an electron is 5.11 x 10^5 eV . Identify the option that correctly states the minimum energy of a photon created by an electron-positron annihilation. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2.5610^5 eV ','optionB':'5.1110^5 eV T ','optionC':'7.6710^5 eV ','optionD':'1.0210^6 eV '},{'text':'Identify the correct statement about PET scanners ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The patient stands upright surrounded by gamma detectors, each consisting of a photomultiplier tube and a sodium iodide scintillator. ','optionB':'The patient stands upright surrounded by gamma detectors, each consisting of a photomultiplier tube and a lithium iodide scintillator. ','optionC':'The patient lies horizontal surrounded by gamma detectors, each consisting of a photomultiplier tube and a sodium iodide scintillator. T ','optionD':'The patient lies horizontal surrounded by gamma detectors, each consisting of a photomultiplier tube and a lithium iodide scintillator. '},{'text':'Which is not an advantage of PET scanners ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'PET scanning is a non-invasive treatment. ','optionB':'PET scanning can investigate broken bones and fractures. T ','optionC':'PET scanning can investigate brain functions. ','optionD':'PET scanning is good at detecting cancers. '},{'text':'The photons produced by the scintillator are guided to the photomultiplier tubes by the light guide. What is function of the photomultiplier tubes? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The photomultiplier tubes creates a cascade of photons, which produces a voltage pulse at the end of the photomultiplier tubes ','optionB':'The photomultiplier tubes creates a cascade of electrons, which produces a voltage pulse at the end of the photomultiplier tubes T ','optionC':'The photomultiplier tubes create an array of photographical images from the incidence gamma rays, which are used to build a 3D image of the patient ','optionD':'The photomultiplier tubes are used to increase the intensity of the incident visible photons, so that they can be imaged on a plate at the end of the photomultiplier tubes '},{'text':'What is the role of the collimator? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The collimator increases the intensity of gamma rays to improve imaging ','optionB':'The collimator ensures that the camera only detects gamma rays from directly below the camera T ','optionC':'The collimator shields the user from harmful radiation ','optionD':'The collimator guides the gamma rays into the rest of the camera '},{'text':'The below diagram shows a section of a gamma camera. The scintillator is normally made of sodium iodide. Identify what happens when a gamma ray hits the scintillator. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'When the scintillator is hit by a gamma ray, it produces thousands of electrons ','optionB':'When the scintillator is hit by a gamma ray, it produces thousands of photons of visible light T ','optionC':'When the scintillator is hit by a gamma ray, it resonates and produces a standing wave ','optionD':'When the scintillator is hit by a gamma ray, it produces a new gamma ray of higher intensity'},]


resistivity_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'The current through a wire is measured to be 2A when the voltage across it is 4V. The length of the wire is 0.5m and it has a cross-sectional area of 3x10^-8 m^2. What is the resistivity of the material that makes up the wire in ohm metres? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.2x10^-7 T ','optionB':'2.5x10^-7 ','optionC':'4.7x10^-7 ','optionD':'3.4x10^-7 '},{'text':'A cylindrical wire is made up of copper which has a resistivity of 17.2n Ohm m. If the wire is 3m long and has a cross-sectional radius of 0.2mm what is its resistance? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.259 Ohm ','optionB':'0.411 Ohm T ','optionC':'0.382 Ohm ','optionD':'0.137 Ohm '},{'text':'A wire of length 5m has a resistivity of 16.5n Ohm m and a resistance of 2O. What is the cross-sectional area of the wire? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2.74x10^-8 m^2 ','optionB':'3.49x10^-8 m^2 ','optionC':'5.51x10^-8 m^2 ','optionD':'4.13x10^-8 m^2 T '},{'text':'A wire has a constant circular cross-sectional area of 4.13x10^-8 m^2, work out the radius of the wire. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.1x10^-4m T ','optionB':'1.74x10^-4m ','optionC':'2.6x10^-4m ','optionD':'2.3x10^-4m '},{'text':'What are the units for resistivity? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Ohm m^2 ','optionB':'Ohm m T ','optionC':'Ohm per m ','optionD':'m per Ohm '},{'text':'A cylindrical wire has a constant cross-sectional radius of 0.15mm. The material it is made of has resistivity 24.7n Ohm m. The resistance of the wire is measured to be 4,000O. What is the length of the wire? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'12,900m ','optionB':'10,200m ','optionC':'13,500m ','optionD':'11,400m T '},{'text':'What is the formula for resistivity in terms of the resistance R, the cross-sectional area A and the length L ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'AR^2/L ','optionB':'RL/A ','optionC':'RA/L T ','optionD':'AL/R '},{'text':'A coil of wire has radius 2cm and 2,000 turns. The wire itself has resistivity 12.3n Ohm m and has a circular cross-section of radius 0.1mm. What is the resistance of the coil of wire? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'113 Ohms ','optionB':'94.7 Ohms ','optionC':'105 Ohms ','optionD':'98.4 Ohms T'},]


resultant_force_quiz_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Which is correct ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The net or resultant force is the biggest force acting on an object ','optionB':'The net or resultant force is decided by the user: the user select which force to call the net or resultant force ','optionC':'The net or resultant force is the force acting on an object if we ignore friction and air resistance ','optionD':'The net or resultant force is the vector sum of all the forces acting on an object T '},{'text':'The net force on an object of mass 10kg is zero. Select the correct statement: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The object will not move ','optionB':'The object will experience a non-zero and constant acceleration ','optionC':'The object will experience a change in velocity ','optionD':'The object will experience zero acceleration T '},{'text':'Select the correct definition of the Newton: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1 Newton is the force required to accelerate a mass of 1 kg by 1 m s^-2 in the direction of the force T ','optionB':'1 Newton is the force required to accelerate a mass of 10 kg by 1 m s^-2 in the direction of the force ','optionC':'1 Newton is the force required to accelerate a mass of 1 kg by 10 m s^-2 in the direction of the force ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'A block of wood is at rest on a slope. Identify the correct forces acting on the block. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Weight, Friction, Tension ','optionB':'Weight, Upthrust, Tension ','optionC':'Weight, Friction, Normal Contact Force T ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'Identify the correct equation for weight: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Weight = force x gravitational acceleration ','optionB':'Weight = force x mass ','optionC':'Weight = mass x gravitational force ','optionD':'Weight = mass x gravitational acceleration T '},{'text':'John has a mass of 85 kg. His weight on Earth is 830 N. What would Johns weight be on Jupiter, where the gravitational acceleration is 2.54 times stronger than Earths? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'85 N ','optionB':'210 N ','optionC':'830 N ','optionD':'2100 N T '},{'text':'A car of mass 1300kg has an engine that produces a force of 2500 N when the accelerator is fully depressed. Calculate the acceleration of the car when the accelerator is fully depressed. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.52 ms^-2 ','optionB':'1.92 ms^-2 T ','optionC':'1.06 ms^-2 ','optionD':'3.20 ms^-2 '},{'text':'',]


resultant_force_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'A car (1200kg) is connected to a trailer (300kg) by a metal rod. The cars engine provides a thrust force of 5000N. There is a resistive force of 1000N on the car and one of 200N on the trailer. Find the acceleration of the vehicle. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2.86m/s^2 ','optionB':'2.72m/s^2 ','optionC':'2.25m/s^2 ','optionD':'2.53m/s^2 T '},{'text':'A ball of mass 200grams is dropped and falls for 3 seconds before hitting the ground. Air resistance applies a constant force 0.5N against the balls motion. What is the final velocity of the ball just before it makes contact with the ground? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'17.8m/s ','optionB':'24.3m/s ','optionC':'19.5m/s ','optionD':'21.9m/s T '},{'text':'A car of mass 1,500kg is stationary on a steep slope angled at 60 degrees. The car starts up its engine which provides a thrust of 15000N up the hill. Find the acceleration of the car. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2.4m/s^2 ','optionB':'2.1m/s^2 ','optionC':'1.5m/s^2 T ','optionD':'2.7m/s^2 '},{'text':'A woman pushes a box of stationary of mass 50kg with a force of 400N. The ground applies a frictional force on the box of 250N. At what rate does the box accelerate? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'3m/s^2 T ','optionB':'6m/s^2 ','optionC':'4m/s^2 ','optionD':'5m/s^2 '},{'text':'A woman of mass 55kg is in a lift of mass 500kg. The lift accelerates upwards at 1m/s^2. Find the tension in the cable which applies the upwards tension to the lift. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'6,300N ','optionB':'5,800N ','optionC':'5,500N ','optionD':'6,000N T'},]


scalars_and_vectors_quiz_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Which is correct ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Speed is the rate of change of displacement ','optionB':'Speed is the rate of change of time ','optionC':'Speed is the rate of change of mass ','optionD':'Speed is the rate of change of distance '},{'text':'Which is correct ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Velocity is the rate of change of displacement ','optionB':'Velocity is the rate of change of time ','optionC':'Velocity is the rate of change of mass ','optionD':'Velocity is the rate of change of distance '},{'text':'Which is correct ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Scalars have magnitude (size) and direction; vectors have magnitude (size) only ','optionB':'Vectors have magnitude (size) only; scalars have direction ','optionC':'Scalars have magnitude (size) only; vectors have direction only ','optionD':'Scalars have magnitude (size) only; vectors have magnitude (size) and direction '},{'text':'When adding two vectors, they should be: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Added tail to tail ','optionB':'Added tip to tip ','optionC':'Added tip to tail ','optionD':'Toe to tail '},{'text':'If two vectors are at right angles, then to find the magnitude of the resultant we should ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Simply add the magntudes of each ','optionB':'Use the quadratic formula ','optionC':'Use the sine or cosine rule ','optionD':'Use pythagoras theorem '},{'text':'If two vectors are not at right angles, then to find the magnitude of the resultant one possible strategy might be to ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Simply add the magntudes of each ','optionB':'Use the quadratic formula ','optionC':'Use the sine or cosine rule ','optionD':'Use pythagoras theorem '},{'text':'Which of these is not a vector quantity? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Momentum ','optionB':'Weight ','optionC':'Velocity ','optionD':'Distance '},{'text':'An object moves in a circle of radius 2m. It takes 20 seconds to make one full rotation. What is the distance and the displacement covered by the object in 10 seconds?  ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'distance = 4pi, displacement = 4m ','optionB':'distance = 4pi, displacement = 2m ','optionC':'distance = 2pi, displacement = 4m ','optionD':'distance = 2pi, displacement = 2m '},{'text':'A plane travels at 40 ms^-1 on a bearing of 060 degrees (i.e. 060 degrees angle clockwise from North) for 15 seconds. Identify the Northerly and Easterly distances travelled in this time ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Easterly: 520 m, Northerly: 300 m ','optionB':'Easterly: 300m, Northerly: 520m ','optionC':'Easterly: 300m, Northerly: 300m ','optionD':'Easterly: 520m, Northerly: 520m '},{'text':'An ant on a picnic table travels 30 eastward, then 25 cm northward, and finally 15 cm westward. What is the magnitude  of the ants displacement relative to its original position? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'29 cm ','optionB':'70 cm ','optionC':'57 cm ','optionD':'52 cm '},{'text':'Force is a vector quantity. True or false? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'TRUE ','optionB':'FALSE ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'Volume is a ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Scalar quantity ','optionB':'Vector quantity ','optionC':'Base quantity ','optionD':'Derived quantity '},{'text':'If a force of 20 N north and another force of 12 N south are acting on an object, the resultant force will be ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'32 N north ','optionB':'20 N north ','optionC':'32 N south ','optionD':'8 N north T '},{'text':'For the winter, a duck flies 10.0 m/s due south against a gust of wind with a speed of 2.5 m/s. What is the resultant velocity of the duck? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'-7.5 m/s south ','optionB':'12.5 m/s south ','optionC':'7.5 m/s south ','optionD':'-12.5 m/s south '},{'text':'A vector is oriented at angle with respect to the x-axis. The y component of the vector equals the vectors magnitude multiplied by which trigonometric function? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Tan angle ','optionB':'Cos angle ','optionC':'Cot angle ','optionD':'Sin angle '},{'text':'A vector is oriented at angle with respect to the x-axis. The x component of the vector equals the vectors magnitude multiplied by which trigonometric function? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Tan angle ','optionB':'Cos angle ','optionC':'Cot angle ','optionD':'Sin angle'},]


series_and_parallel_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'A 20 Ohm resistor is connected in series to a 15 Ohm resistor. What is the combined resistance of the two resistors? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'35 Ohm T ','optionB':'20 Ohm ','optionC':'40 Ohm ','optionD':'5 Ohm '},{'text':'A 4O resistor and a 6O resistor are connected in parallel. They are also connected in series with a 5O resistor and a 12V supply of negligible internal resistance. What is the voltage across the 4O resistor? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2.6V ','optionB':'3.9V T ','optionC':'4.5V ','optionD':'1.2V '},{'text':'In Series Circuit, which of the following quantity remains same through out the circuit? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Current and Voltage ','optionB':'Current T ','optionC':'Voltage ','optionD':'None '},{'text':'A voltmeter should be connected to a circuit in.. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Series ','optionB':'Parallel T ','optionC':'Short form ','optionD':'None of the above '},{'text':'Three resistances 20 Ohm, 30 Ohm and 60 Ohm are connected in parallel, their combined resistance is given by ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'110 Ohm ','optionB':'50 Ohm ','optionC':'20 Ohm ','optionD':'10 Ohm T '},{'text':'Two 10 O resistors are connected in parallel, their equivalent resistance is ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'5 Ohm T ','optionB':'0.2 Ohm ','optionC':'15 Ohm ','optionD':'20 Ohm '},{'text':'An ammeter should always have a ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'high resistance ','optionB':'low resistance T ','optionC':'low voltage ','optionD':'high voltage '},{'text':'What is the total resistance of a circuit when R1 (7 k Ohm) is in series with a parallel combination of R2 (20 k Ohm), R3 (36 k Ohm), and R4 (45 k Ohm)? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'4 k Ohm ','optionB':'17 k Ohm T ','optionC':'41 k Ohm ','optionD':'108 k Ohm '},{'text':'If two 4 Ohm resistors are connected in parallel the effective resistance of the circuit is: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'8 Ohm ','optionB':'4 Ohm ','optionC':'2 Ohm T ','optionD':'1 Ohm '},{'text':'The effect of connecting an additional parallel load to an electrical supply source is to increase the: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'resistance of the load ','optionB':'voltage of the source ','optionC':'current taken from the source T ','optionD':'p.d. across the load '},{'text':'A 10 Ohm resistor is connected in parallel with a 15 Ohm resistor and the combination in series with a 12 Ohm resistor. The equivalent resistance of the circuit is: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'37 Ohm ','optionB':'18 Ohm T ','optionC':'27 Ohm ','optionD':'4 Ohm '},{'text':'A voltmeter should have ? resistance ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'zero ','optionB':'very high T ','optionC':'very low ','optionD':'None of the above'},]


shm_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Which of the following is the correct expression for the acceleration of a body undergoing simple harmonic motion? Here, f is the frequency of oscillation and x is the displacement. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'a = -(2 pi /f)^2 x ','optionB':'a = -(2 pi f x)^2 ','optionC':'a = -(2 pi f)^2 x T ','optionD':'a = - (2 pi / x)^2 f '},{'text':'If there was no damping on a resonant oscillating physical system, what would happen? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The system would decrease its energy every cycle and the amplitude of oscillation would increase indefinitely ','optionB':'The system would increase its frequency every cycle ','optionC':'The system would decrease its frequency every cycle ','optionD':'The system would increase its energy every cycle and the amplitude of oscillation would increase indefinitely T '},{'text':'What is the name of the resultant force which causes simple harmonic motion, allowing oscillations to occur? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The resulting force ','optionB':'The restoring force T ','optionC':'The resurrecting force ','optionD':'The radiative force '},{'text':'What is the unit of frequency? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Hertz T ','optionB':'Second ','optionC':'Metre ','optionD':'Coulomb '},{'text':'Which of the following statement about damping is not true? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Damping lowers the energy of an oscillating system ','optionB':'Damping decreases the amplitude of oscillations of a system ','optionC':'Damping dissipates the energy of the system into its surroundings ','optionD':'Damping destroys energy T '},{'text':'Which of the following statements about the damping of simple harmonic motion is true? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Damping gradually decreases the amplitude of an oscillation and increases the period of oscillation ','optionB':'Damping gradually increases the amplitude of an oscillation and decreases the period of oscillation ','optionC':'Damping gradually decreases the amplitude of an oscillation but leaves the period unchanged T ','optionD':'Damping gradually increases the amplitude of an oscillation but leaves the period unchanged '},{'text':'Which of the following is the correct definition of the natural frequency of a system? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The frequency at which the system undergoes fixed vibrations ','optionB':'The frequency at which the system undergoes forced vibrations ','optionC':'The frequency at which the system undergoes free vibrations T ','optionD':'The frequency at which the system undergoes good vibrations '},{'text':'A conker is spun on a string so that it forms a horizontal circular orbit, 0.5 m in radius, with the string tracing out a cone . If the conker completes a revolution 4 times per second, and the tension in the string is 0.65N, how much does the conker weigh? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'8.2g T ','optionB':'20.6g ','optionC':'517g ','optionD':'6.74g '},{'text':'A mass is hanging on a spring of spring constant k and executes simple harmonic motion. If the displacement of the mass from its equilibrium position is given by x, what is the restoring force acting on the mass? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'F = - kx T ','optionB':'F = - x/k ','optionC':'F = -k/x ','optionD':'F = - (1/2)kx^2 '},{'text':'A simple pendulum executes simple harmonic motion at small angles to the vertical. If the pendulum is 0.75m long and is never more than 10cm from its equilibrium position, what is the maximum acceleration experienced by the pendulum bob? Use g=10 ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.75 ms^-2 ','optionB':'13.3 ms^-2 ','optionC':'1.33 ms^-2 ','optionD':'7.5 ms^-2 '},{'text':'Which of the following statements about simple harmonic motion is not true? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Potential energy is always at a maximum in a cycle when kinetic energy is at a minimum ','optionB':'The sum of potential energy and kinetic energy is a constant through the whole cycle of oscillation ','optionC':'Potential energy and kinetic energy are equal at zero displacement' ','optionD':'Potential energy is always at a minimum in a cycle when kinetic energy is at a maximum '},{'text':'The total energy of a system undergoing simple harmonic motion is constant in time. Is this statement true or false? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'T ','optionB':'F ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'A pianist plays a chromatic scale on a piano, playing every key one after the other from one end of the piano to the other. The piano has a two small non-identical ornaments sat on top of it. One of these ornaments starts vibrating when a particular note on the piano is played. What is causing this phenomenon? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The frequency of the note played by the piano matches the natural frequency of the ornament, causing resonance in it T ','optionB':'The ornament decides that it likes that note very much ','optionC':'The frequency of the note played by the piano matches the natural frequency of the piano, causing resonance in it ','optionD':'The note played by the piano had more energy than any other note it could play, and this forced the ornament to move '},{'text':'A swinging pendulum undergoes simple harmonic motion. When is it experiencing the greatest acceleration? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'At the top of each swing, when it is stationary T ','optionB':'While moving towards the bottom of each swing ','optionC':'While moving towards the top of each swing ','optionD':'At the bottom of each swing, when it is moving at its fastest '},{'text':'Which of the following is the correct definition of resonance? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'When the driving frequency is less than the natural frequency of a system ','optionB':'When the natural frequency of a system is infinite ','optionC':'When the driving frequency matches the natural frequency of a system ','optionD':'When the driving frequency is more than the natural frequency of a system '},{'text':'If the acceleration of a pendulum executing simple harmonic motion is given by a=-(g/l)x, what is the time period of each oscillation ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2.pi.sqrt(l/g) ','optionB':'(1/2.pi).sqrt(l/g) ','optionC':'(1/2.pi).sqrt(g/l) ','optionD':'2.pi.sqrt(g/l) '},{'text':'The displacement of a wave at a point is 5sin(2t) m. Another wave at the same point has a displacement of 3cos(0.5t) m. Working in radians what is the total displacement (in metres) at that point at time 2 seconds? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'-2.16 ','optionB':'4.65 ','optionC':'-3.67 ','optionD':'1.85 '},{'text':'Is amplitude a vector quantity or a scalar quantity? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Vector quantity ','optionB':'Scalar quantity T ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'?'},]


solving_suvat_equations_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'A conker, initially at rest, falls from a tree. Select the correct statement from below. You may ignore air resistance. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The conker is in free-fall and therefore has an acceleration of g=8.81 ms^-2 ','optionB':'The conker is in free-fall and therefore has a velocity of g=8.81 ms-1 ','optionC':'The conker is in free-fall and therefore has an acceleration of g=9.81 ms^-2 ','optionD':'The conker is in free-fall and therefore has a velocity of g=9.81 ms^-1 '},{'text':'A conker, initially at rest, falls from a tree and travels 2m before it hits the floor. Select the correct statement from below. You may assume that we can ignore air resistance. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'suvat equations can be used because the conker has constant velocity ','optionB':'suvat equations can be used because the conker has changing speed ','optionC':'suvat equations can be used because the conker has constant acceleration ','optionD':'suvat equations can be used because the conker has changing acceleration '},{'text':'Select the correct set of suvat terms for a conker falling from a height of 2m. The conker is initially at rest and we can ignore air resistance. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'s = 2 m , u = ? Ms^-1 , v = 0 ms^-1 , a = 9.81 ms^-2 , t = ? ','optionB':'s = ? , u = 2 m , v = ? ms^-1 , a = 9.81 ms^-2 , t = ? ','optionC':'s = ? , u = 0 ms^-1 , v = 2 m , a = 9.81 ms^-2 , t = ? ','optionD':'s = 2 m , u = 0 ms^-1 , v = ? ms^-1 , a = 9.81 ms^-2 , t = ? '},{'text':'The conker, initially at rest, falls from a height of 2m and we know that the suvat terms are: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'s = 2 m , u = 0 ms-1 , v = ? ms-1 , a = 9.81 ms^-2 , t = ? ','optionB':'Which equation should we use if we want to calculate the final velocity? ','optionC':'v = u + at ','optionD':'s = ut + 1/2at^2 '},{'text':'s = ½(u + v)t ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'v^2 = u^2 + 2as ','optionB':'Calculate the time taken for the conker to reach the ground when falling from a height of 2m. ','optionC':'0.54 s ','optionD':'0.64 s '},{'text':'0.32 s ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.46 s ','optionB':'A ball is dropped from the top of a tower, it takes 6.00 seconds to hit the ground. Calculate the height of the building. You may assume that air resistance is negligible. g = 9.81 ms-2. Please give your answer to 3 significant figures. ','optionC':'29.4 m ','optionD':'90.9 m '},{'text':'151 m ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'177 m',]


speed_velocity_acceleration_quiz_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Identify the correct equation for the average speed: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'v = (total displacement) * (total time) ','optionB':'v = (total displacement) / (total time) ','optionC':'v = (total distance) * (total time) ','optionD':'v = (total distance) / (total time) '},{'text':'Identify the correct equation for average velocity? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'v = (total displacement)/(total time) ','optionB':'v = (total distance)/(total time) ','optionC':'v = (total displacement)*(total time) ','optionD':'v = (total distance)*(total time) '},{'text':'The units of speed are: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'m s^-1 ','optionB':'m s^1 ','optionC':'m s^-2 ','optionD':'m s^2 '},{'text':'The units of velocity are: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'m s^-1 ','optionB':'m s^1 ','optionC':'m s^-2 ','optionD':'m s^2 '},{'text':'Identify the correct equation for average acceleration? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Average acceleration = (change in  displacement) * (change in time) ','optionB':'Average acceleration = (change in velocity) / (change in time) ','optionC':'Average acceleration = (change in displacement) / (change in time) ','optionD':'Average acceleration = (change in velocity) * (change in time) '},{'text':'Identify the correct equation for acceleration. Note that v = final velocity; u = initial velocity; and t = time.  ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'a = (v-u)/t ','optionB':'a = (v+u)/t ','optionC':'a = (v-u)*t ','optionD':'a = (v+u)*t '},{'text':'Which is correct ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Acceleration is the rate of change of time ','optionB':'Acceleration is the rate of change of displacement ','optionC':'Acceleration is the rate of change of distance ','optionD':'Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity '},{'text':'The units of acceleration are: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'m s^-1 ','optionB':'m s^1 ','optionC':'m s^-2 ','optionD':'m s^2 '},{'text':'A train takes half an hour to travel between two stations. The displacement between stations is +10 km. Select the train’s average velocity ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'30 km/h ','optionB':'20 km/h ','optionC':'minus 40 km/h ','optionD':'10 km/h'},]


star_evolution_quiz_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Identify what the term solar mass refers to ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The mass of the star in a given solar system ','optionB':'The total mass of a given solar system ','optionC':'The total mass of our solar system ','optionD':'The mass of the Sun T '},{'text':'Stars are classified as either low-mass stars or high-mass stars. Identify the mass range of low-mass stars. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.5 — 5 solar masses ','optionB':'0.5 — 10 solar masses T ','optionC':'0.5 — 15 solar masses ','optionD':'0.5 — 20 solar masses '},{'text':'Stars are on the main sequence for most of their lifespan. After a very long time on the main sequence, a significant change takes place within stars. Identify the cause of this change ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The helium in the stars core begins to run out ','optionB':'The hydrogen in the stars core begins to run out B ','optionC':'The temperature of the stars core reaches a critically high level ','optionD':'The density of the stars core reaches a critically high level '},{'text':'What happens to the stars core once hydrogen levels in the core start to deplete? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The core expands due to an increased gas pressure ','optionB':'The core temperature increases rapidly as helium burning begins ','optionC':'The core expands due to an increased gas density ','optionD':'The core collapses slightly T '},{'text':'Following the depletion of core hydrogen, the core collapses a bit. Identify what happens next in low-mass stars at this stage. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The temperature increases in the core and helium fusion begins ','optionB':'The temperature increases in the core, sending shockwaves through the star, which cause a supernova ','optionC':'The pressure in the core increases, which triggers hydrogen burning in the shell around the core T ','optionD':'The pressure in the core increases, which triggers helium burning in the shell around the core '},{'text':'A low-mass star expands into a red giant when hydrogen burning in the shell around the core takes place. Identify how the surface temperature of the star changes. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The surface temperature increases as the star expands ','optionB':'The surface temperature decreases as the star expands T ','optionC':'The surface temperature stays approximately constant as the star expands ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'Identify what eventually happens to the layers of a red giant outside the core ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The layers are pushed away a certain distance and then collapse back into the stars core ','optionB':'The layers are pushed away a certain distance and then collapse to create a supernova ','optionC':'The layers are pushed away to form a stellar nebula ','optionD':'The layers are pushed away to form a planetary nebula T '},{'text':'Identify the name given to the remaining core when the outer layers of a red giant are pushed away from the core ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Brown dwarf ','optionB':'Red dwarf ','optionC':'White dwarf T ','optionD':'Blue dwarf '},{'text':'A white dwarf is the remnant part of the star once the outer layers of a red giant are pushed away. Identify the correct statement regarding the temperature and fusion activity of a white dwarf ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The temperature of a white dwarf is very hot, and can be up to 30000 K. No fusion takes place within a white dwarf T ','optionB':'The temperature of a white dwarf is very hot, and can be up to 30000 K. Fusion takes place within a white dwarf ','optionC':'The temperature of a white dwarf is low, only reaching temperatures of up to 3000 K. No fusion takes place within a white dwarf ','optionD':'The temperature of a white dwarf is low, only reaching temperatures of up to 3000 K. Fusion takes place within a white dwarf '},{'text':'Identify the statement that correctly describes the density, mass and volume of a white dwarf ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'White dwarfs have low density, commonly with a volume equal to the Sun, and mass equal to the Earths mass ','optionB':'White dwarfs have high density, commonly with a volume equal to the Sun, and mass equal to the Earths mass ','optionC':'White dwarfs have low density, commonly with a volume equal to the Earth, and mass equal to the Suns mass ','optionD':'White dwarfs have high density, commonly with a volume equal to the Earth, and mass equal to the Suns mass T '},{'text':'Identify what stops complete gravitational collapse in some white dwarfs ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Electrostatic repulsion ','optionB':'Electron degeneracy pressure T ','optionC':'Strong nuclear force ','optionD':'Weak nuclear force '},{'text':'The electron degeneracy pressure can only stop further gravitational collapse if the core has mass below a certain limit. identify the value of this limit in solar masses. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.44 solar masses T ','optionB':'10.0 solar masses ','optionC':'1.36 solar masses ','optionD':'9.85 solar masses '},{'text':'We have seen that if the core is less than 1.44 solar masses, then the electron degeneracy pressure is sufficient to stop gravitational collapse. Identify the name of this 1.44 solar mass limit. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Degeneracy limit ','optionB':'Feynman limit ','optionC':'Rutherford limit ','optionD':'Chandrasekhar limit T '},{'text':'A massive star is defined as a star that has a mass greater than: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.1 solar mass ','optionB':'10 solar masses T ','optionC':'1000 solar masses ','optionD':'100 000 solar masses '},{'text':'Identify the correct statement about massive stars when they are in the main sequence phase. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Main sequence massive stars use up their hydrogen quickly, so life span is often only millions of years. T ','optionB':'Main sequence massive stars use up their hydrogen slowly, so life span is often millions of years. ','optionC':'Main sequence massive stars use up their helium quickly, so life span is often only millions of years. ','optionD':'Main sequence massive stars use up their helium slowly, so life span is a often millions of years. '},{'text':'Identify the correct statement about massive stars when hydrogen in the core runs out. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The core explodes. ','optionB':'The core becomes a white dwarf. ','optionC':'The core becomes stable ','optionD':'The cores begins to collapse much like low mass stars. T '},{'text':'A larger mass means that more gravitational potential energy is released when the core beings to collapse. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Choose the correct option that describes the change in the kinetic energy and the temperature of a high mass core compared to a low mass core when the core begins to collapse. ','optionB':'The kinetic energy and the temperature of the core increases less than for low mass cores. ','optionC':'The kinetic energy and the temperature of the core increases by roughly the same amount as for low mass cores. ','optionD':'The kinetic energy and the temperature of the core increases more than for low mass cores T '},{'text':'The kinetic energy and the temperature of the core decreases by roughly the same amount as for low mass cores. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'As the core collapses, fusion of helium starts. ','optionB':'Select the the option that identify the requirement for the fusion of helium to start. ','optionC':'The temperature of the core is sufficiently high to overcome the electrostatic repulsion. T ','optionD':'The temperature of the core is sufficiently high to overcome the gravity. '},{'text':'The temperature of the core is sufficiently low to overcome the electrostatic repulsion. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The temperature of the core is sufficiently low to overcome the gravity. ','optionB':'Identify the heaviest element that can be created in the core. ','optionC':'Iron T ','optionD':'Carbon '},{'text':'oxygen ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'helium ','optionB':'Choose the correct option that describes what takes place in a non-burning iron core. ','optionC':'There is a decrease in radiation pressure, which allows gravitational collapse to occur. T ','optionD':'There is a decrease in radiation pressure, which allows gravitational expansion to occur. '},{'text':'There is an increase in radiation pressure, which allows gravitational collapse to occur. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'There is an increase in radiation pressure, which allows gravitational expansion to occur. ','optionB':'Identify the type of star that a star will become after the supernova stage if the mass of star core is greater than 1.44 solar masses (chandrasekhar limit) but below 3 solar masses ','optionC':'black hole ','optionD':'white dwarf '},{'text':'neutron star T ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'red supergiant ','optionB':'Identify the type of star that a star will become after the supernova stage if the mass of star core is greater than 3 solar masses ','optionC':'black hole T ','optionD':'white dwarf '},{'text':'neutron star ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'red supergiant ','optionB':'In the universe elements heavier than iron can be found. At which stage are those elements formed? ','optionC':'red supergiant ','optionD':'supernova T '},{'text':'neutron star ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'black hole',]


star_formation_quiz_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Identify the definition of a nebula ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The interstellar dust the permeates all of the universe ','optionB':'The inner-core of a star, in which helium is made from nuclear fusion ','optionC':'The outer layers of a star, which are made mostly of hydrogen gas ','optionD':'Huge clouds of dust and gas, where stars are born T '},{'text':'Nebulae are formed over million of years as dust and gas slowly come together due to gravitational attraction to form vast clouds. Identify how these clouds begin to collapse to form stars. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Some regions in the nebula cloud are denser than other regions, and the cloud collapses around these denser regions T ','optionB':'The nebula has approximately uniform density and it collapses around the most central point ','optionC':'The collapse takes place around the edge of the nebula cloud as the temperature of the centre is too high for collapse to take place ','optionD':'The collapse occurs only when another nebula collides with the nebula cloud '},{'text':'Taking a single dense region and thinking about the gravitational collapse in that region, select the statement that describes what happens in terms of energy when the collapse takes place. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Work is done by gravity, causing the gravitational potential energy to increase and the kinetic energy of the gas and dust to decrease ','optionB':'Work is done by the radiation pressure, causing the gravitational potential energy to decrease and the kinetic energy of the gas and dust to increase ','optionC':'Work is done by the radiation pressure, causing the gravitational potential energy to increase and the kinetic energy of the gas and dust to decrease ','optionD':'Work is done by gravity, causing the gravitational potential energy to decrease and the kinetic energy of the gas and dust to increase T '},{'text':'When regions of nebula collapse, work is done by gravity. The gravitational potential energy decreases and the kinetic energy of the gas and dust increases. Identify how these changes affect the temperature of the region. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The temperature increases because temperature is inversely proportional to the average gravitational potential energy ','optionB':'The temperature increases because temperature is proportional to the average kinetic energy of the gas and dust particles T ','optionC':'The temperature increases because temperature is proportional to the average density of the region ','optionD':'The temperature increases because the radiation pressure increases during collapse '},{'text':'If a protostar has high enough temperature and pressure, nuclear fusion occurs. Identify the nuclei that are fused in this initial nuclear fusion. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Hydrogen nuclei fuse to form helium nuclei T ','optionB':'Helium nuclei fuse to form hydrogen nuclei ','optionC':'Lithium nuclei fuse to form helium nuclei ','optionD':'Lithium nuclei fuse to form hydrogen nuclei '},{'text':'The temperature and pressure inside a protostar determines whether nuclear fusion begins. Identify why a high temperature and pressure is needed for nuclear fusion to begin ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'In order to overcome the electron degeneracy force between hydrogen nuclei ','optionB':'In order to overcome the nuclear strong force between hydrogen nuclei ','optionC':'In order to overcome the electrostatic repulsion between hydrogen nuclei T ','optionD':'In order to overcome the nuclear weak force between hydrogen nuclei '},{'text':'Identify what determines whether the temperature and pressure inside a protostar reaches the required level for nuclear fusion to begin ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The amount of radiation pressure from the surrounding nebula ','optionB':'The amount of mass in and immediately around a protostar T ','optionC':'The total mass of the entire nebula ','optionD':'The distance between the nebula and the nearest black hole '},{'text':'Relative to a stars complete life-span, how long does a star remain at almost a constant size due to the equilibrium between the gravitational forces and the gas and radiation pressures? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'For a short amount of time ','optionB':'For the entire life cycle ','optionC':'For the majority of the stars life cycle T ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'Stars are said to be on their main sequence during the stable part of their lifespan. The mass of the star determines how long it remains stable. Stars that have low-mass cores remain stable for longer. Identify the statement that correctly describes why the star cores mass determines the length of stability ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The higher the cores mass, the more radiation pressure from the core. This triggers fusion in the outer layers of the star and increases the rate of hydrogen fusion ','optionB':'The higher the cores mass, the hotter the core. This increases the rate of hydrogen fusion T ','optionC':'The higher the cores mass, the higher gravitational force experienced by the stars matter. An increased gravitational force overcomes the radiation and gas pressure, causing the star to become unstable ','optionD':'?'},]


stopping_distance_quiz_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Identify the correct statement: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The thinking distance is the distance travelled by the vehicle after the driver has finished thinking how to respond to an obstacle. ','optionB':'The thinking distance is the distance that the driver thinks they should be from the vehicle in-front of them. ','optionC':'The thinking distance is the sum of the braking distance and the stopping distance. ','optionD':'The thinking distance is how far the vehicle travels while the driver is reacting. '},{'text':'Identify the correct statement: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The reaction time is the time it takes for a vehicles airbags to deploy. ','optionB':'The reaction time is the time it takes for a person to react to a stimulus (e.g. the time it takes a driver to observe an obstacle and apply the brakes). ','optionC':'The reaction time is the braking distance minus the stopping distance. ','optionD':'The reaction time is the time taken for the vehicle to stop '},{'text':'A car is travelling at a constant speed towards an obstacle. Identify the correct statement: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The smaller the reaction time, the smaller the thinking distance. ','optionB':'The smaller the reaction time, the larger the thinking distance. ','optionC':'The thinking distance is independent of the reaction time. ','optionD':'The larger the reaction time, the smaller the thinking distance. '},{'text':'A truck is travelling along a road and the driver notices a hazard. Identify the correct statement: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The braking distance is the distance travelled by the car from when the driver first observes the hazard until the driver starts to apply the brakes.   ','optionB':'The braking distance is the distance travelled by the truck from when the driver first observes the hazard to when the truck has come to a complete halt. ','optionC':'The braking distance is the distance travelled by the truck from when the brakes are first applied to when the truck has come to a complete halt.  ','optionD':'The braking distance is distance between the truck and the hazard once the truck has come to a complete halt. '},{'text':'Identify the correct relationship between the following distances. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Thinking distance = braking distance – stopping distance ','optionB':'Stopping distance = thinking distance + braking distance ','optionC':'Braking distance = thinking distance – stopping distance ','optionD':'Thinking distance + stopping distance = braking distance'},]


thermal_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'What is the latent heat of a substance? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The amount of potential energy in 1 kg of the substance ','optionB':'The amount of energy per unit mass to change its state T ','optionC':'The amount of energy required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of the substance by 1 degree Celsius ','optionD':'The number of atoms in one mole of the substance '},{'text':'What is the energy required to heat 2 litres (2kg) of water by 10 degrees Celsius? (Take the heat capacity of water to be 4200 Joules per kg per Kelvin) ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2000J ','optionB':'8400J ','optionC':'40,000J ','optionD':'84,000J T '},{'text':'If you applied 1000J of energy to 1kg of gold, by how much would you raise the temperature? (Take the specific heat capacity of gold to be 100 Joules per kg per Kelvin). ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1K ','optionB':'100K ','optionC':'0.1K ','optionD':'10K T '},{'text':'What would happen to a substance if its temperature were brought to absolute zero? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'It would conduct electricity ','optionB':'It would expand ','optionC':'All the molecules stop moving T ','optionD':'It can exist in all 3 states of matter '},{'text':'What is the specific latent heat of vaporisation of a substance? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The energy required to change 1 kg of a liquid into 1 kg of a gas at constant temperature T ','optionB':'The energy required to change 1 kg of a liquid into 1 kg of a solid at constant temperature ','optionC':'The energy required to change 1 kg of a solid into 1 kg of a gas at constant temperature ','optionD':'The energy required to change 1 kg of a solid into 1 kg of a liquid at constant temperature '},{'text':'Convert 0 degrees Celsius to Kelvin ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'100 K ','optionB':'0 K ','optionC':'273.15 K T ','optionD':'-273.15 K '},{'text':'How much energy is required to boil 2 litres of water at 100 degrees C? The specific latent heat of vaporisation for water is 2260 kJ/kg. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1130 kJ ','optionB':'4520 J ','optionC':'1130 J ','optionD':'4520 kJ T '},{'text':'How much energy is required to melt 5 kg of ice? Water has a latent heat of fusion of 334 kJ/kg. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'67 J ','optionB':'1670 kJ T ','optionC':'67 kJ ','optionD':'1670 J '},{'text':'In the following equation, what is c? delta Q = m c delta T ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'specific heat capacity T ','optionB':'mass ','optionC':'energy ','optionD':'speed of light '},{'text':'A 3 kW gas cooker is heating up 2 litres of water. How long will it take for the water to reach 100 degrees C, when it is initially at 20 degrees Celsius? The specific heat capacity of water is 4190 J/K/kg. assume no heat is lost to the surroundings. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'400 s ','optionB':'22 s ','optionC':'220 s T ','optionD':'520 s '},{'text':'5775 J is applied to heat 1 kg of copper. By how much does the temperature of the copper increase? Copper has a specific heat capacity of 385 J kg^-1 K^-1. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'20 K ','optionB':'22 K ','optionC':'30 K ','optionD':'15 K T '},{'text':'What is the internal energy of a substance? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The sum of the potential and kinetic energies of all the particles T ','optionB':'The sum of the potential and kinetic energy of the average particle ','optionC':'The product of the potential and kinetic energies of all the particles ','optionD':'The potential energy of all the particles '},{'text':'5.8 kJ of energy is applied to a quantity of liquid mercury to vaporise it. What must the largest mass be so that all the mercury becomes a gas? The specific latent heat of vaporisation of mercury is 290 kJ/kg. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'200 g ','optionB':'2 kg ','optionC':'2 g ','optionD':'20 g T '},{'text':'The specific heat capacity is the amount of energy it takes to do what? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Raise the temperature of 1 kg of the material by 10 degrees Celsius ','optionB':'Raise the temperature of 1 kg of the material by 1 Kelvin T ','optionC':'Raise the temperature of 1 kg of the material by 1 degree Fahrenheit ','optionD':'Raise the temperature of 100g of the material by 1 degree Celsius '},{'text':'If you applied 1000J of energy to 1kg of gold, by how much would you raise the temperature? (Take the specific heat capacity of gold to be 100 Joules per kg per Kelvin). ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.1K ','optionB':'10K T ','optionC':'100K ','optionD':'1K '},{'text':'What is the energy needed to change the state of a substance? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'delta Q = m L T ','optionB':'delta Q = m L^2 ','optionC':'delta Q = m / L ','optionD':'delta Q = m c delta T '},{'text':'40 kJ of energy is applied to block of concrete which heats it up by 10 K. How heavy is the block? Concrete has a specific heat capacity of 3350 J/kg/K. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'8 kg ','optionB':'1.2 kg T ','optionC':'0.8 kg ','optionD':'12 kg '},{'text':'What property of a substance changes during a change of temperature ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The mass ','optionB':'The temperature ','optionC':'The average kinetic energy of the particles T ','optionD':'The volume '},{'text':'What is the specific latent heat of fusion of a substance? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The energy required to change 1 kg of a liquid into 1 kg of a gas at constant temperature ','optionB':'The energy required to change 1 kg of a liquid into 1 kg of a solid at constant temperature ','optionC':'The energy required to change 1 kg of a solid into 1 kg of a gas at constant temperature ','optionD':'The energy required to change 1 kg of a solid into 1 kg of a liquid at constant temperature T '},{'text':'Which of the following can be used to measure temperature? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The resistance of a metal wire ','optionB':'The wavelength of radiation emitted by a body ','optionC':'The volume of a gas ','optionD':'All of the above T'},]


ultrasound2_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Select the correct statement about ultrasound ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Ultrasound is a longitudinal wave of frequency above 20 kHz T ','optionB':'Ultrasound is a longitudinal wave of frequency below 20 kHz but above 3 kHz ','optionC':'Ultrasound is a transverse wave of frequency above 20 kHz ','optionD':'Ultrasound is a transverse wave of frequency below 20 kHz but above 3 kHz '},{'text':'What does an ultrasound transducer do? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Emits ultrasound only ','optionB':'Receives ultrasound only ','optionC':'Emits and receives ultrasound T ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'Which of the following is used in an ultrasound transducer to produce ultrasound? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Penzelectric crystals ','optionB':'Piezoelectric crystals T ','optionC':'Pizzaelectric crystals ','optionD':'Pendoelectric crystals '},{'text':'Piezoelectric crystals are special materials that respond to an applied potential difference across the crystal. Select the statement that correctly explains how the crystals respond to the applied potential difference. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The crystals compress under an applied potential difference only ','optionB':'The crystals stretch under an applied potential difference only ','optionC':'The polarity of the p.d. determines whether the crystal stretches or compresses T ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'Piezoelectric crystals are special materials that respond to an applied potential difference across the crystal. The crystals also respond to being stretched or compressed. Select the statement that correctly explains how the crystals respond to being stretched or compressed ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'An e.m.f. is induced only when the crystal is stretched ','optionB':'An e.m.f is induced only when the crystal is compressed ','optionC':'An e.m.f is induced when the crystal is compressed or stretched, and the polarity of the e.m.f is always the same ','optionD':'An e.m.f is induced when the crystal is compressed or stretched, however the polarity of the e.m.f depends on whether the crystal is compressed or stretched T '},{'text':'The piezoelectric crystal in an ultrasound transducer both emits the ultrasound that travel through the patients body, and also receives the reflected ultrasound. Select the statement that correctly describes how the ultrasound is emitted ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'An alternating potential difference across the crystal alternates between stretching and compressing the crystal, which generates ultrasound T ','optionB':'A static potential difference across the crystal continuously compresses the crystal, which generates ultrasound ','optionC':'A static potential difference across the crystal continuously stretches the crystal, which generates ultrasound ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'Is the frequency of the alternating potential difference across the crystal the same as the natural frequency of the crystal? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Yes T ','optionB':'No ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'Does the ultrasound transducer produce continuous ultrasound, or pulses of ultrasound? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Continuous ','optionB':'Pulses T ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'What happens to ultrasound when it hits the boundary between substances in the human body (e.g. soft tissue and bone) ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The ultrasound will always fully reflect at the boundary ','optionB':'The ultrasound will partially reflect at the boundary T ','optionC':'The ultrasound will be absorbed fully by the new substance ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'The reflected wave travels back to the transducer and stretches and compresses the piezoelectric crystal. What does this stretch and compression create? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'An alternating e.m.f signal that is used by computer software to generate an image T ','optionB':'An non-alternating e.m.f signal that is used by computer software to generate an image ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'What does A-scan ultrasound stand for? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Acceleration scan ','optionB':'Asymptotic scan ','optionC':'Alternating scan ','optionD':'Amplitude scan T '},{'text':'What are A-scans used to measure? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'A two-dimensional image of an area of the patients body ','optionB':'The thickness of a substance, or the distance between two boundaries T ','optionC':'The density of a substance in the body ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'What does B-scan stand for? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Beta scan ','optionB':'Brightness scan T ','optionC':'Becquerel scan ','optionD':'Bone scan '},{'text':'During a B-scan, the transducer is moved across the body. At each position of the transducer, a row of dots is created by the computer. Each dot represents a boundary between two tissues. Does a B-scan produce a 1-dimensional or 2-dimensional image? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1d ','optionB':'2d T ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'Identify the option corresponding to the correct equation for acoustic impedance of a medium ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Z = p/c ','optionB':'Z = c/p ','optionC':'Z=pc T ','optionD':'Z=1/pc '},{'text':'Identify the equation for the intensity reflection coefficient ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Ir/I0 = (Z2 - Z1) / (Z2 + Z1) ','optionB':'Ir/I0 = (Z2 + Z1) / (Z2 - Z1) ','optionC':'Ir/I0 = (Z2 - Z1)^2 / (Z2 + Z1)^2 T ','optionD':'Ir/I0 = (Z2 - Z1)^2 / (Z2 - Z1)^2 '},{'text':'Identify the correct statement about impedances from the options below. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The intensity reflection coefficient increases as the difference between the medias acoustic impedances increases, since a greater fraction of the incident wave is reflected. T ','optionB':'The intensity reflection coefficient decreases as the difference between the medias acoustic impedances increases, since a greater fraction of the incident wave is reflected. ','optionC':'The intensity reflection coefficient increases as the difference between the medias acoustic impedances increases, since a lower fraction of the incident wave is reflected. ','optionD':'The intensity reflection coefficient decreases as the difference between the medias acoustic impedances increases, since a lower fraction of the incident wave is reflected. '},{'text':'In ultrasound scans, a transducer produces pulses of ultrasound that then travel through the body. Identify the correct statement about impedances from the options below. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Air pockets between the transducer and the skin cause most of the ultrasound to be reflected at the skin. Coupling gel is used to stop this. T ','optionB':'Air pockets between the transducer and the skin cause most of the ultrasound to be transmitted at the skin. Coupling gel is used to stop this. ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'Identify the correct statement about the use of gel in ultrasound scans from the options below. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Using coupling gel in ultrasound scans is an example of impedance coupling, where the acoustic impedance difference between media is designed to be high to prevent reflection. ','optionB':'Using coupling gel in ultrasound scans is an example of impedance coupling, where the acoustic impedance difference between media is designed to be low to prevent reflection. ','optionC':'Using coupling gel in ultrasound scans is an example of impedance matching, where the acoustic impedance difference between media is designed to be high to prevent reflection. ','optionD':'Using coupling gel in ultrasound scans is an example of impedance matching, where the acoustic impedance difference between media is designed to be low to prevent reflection. T '},{'text':'Ultrasound experiences the Doppler effect when it reflects off moving substances in the body. Blood is commonly imaged through Doppler sonography. How does the change in frequency depend on the speed, $v$v?, of blood? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The change in frequency is proportional to the speed^2 ','optionB':'The change in frequency is proportional to the speed T ','optionC':'The change in frequency is inversely proportional to the speed^2 ','optionD':'The change in frequency is inversely proportional to the speed'},]


ultrasound_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Ultrasound is defined to be: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Sound that has a lower frequency than human hearing. ','optionB':'Sound that is greater in frequency than the upper limit of human hearing i.e. 20 kHz. ','optionC':'Frequency of sound in the human hearing range. ','optionD':'Sound that lies in the frequency range of 20-200 Hz. '},{'text':'A transducer is a device used to produce and detect ultrasound. It can be defined as: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'A device that collects and emits sound waves. ','optionB':'Any device that converts energy from one form to another. ','optionC':'A device that allows electric fields to be changed to sound. ','optionD':'A device that can image magnetic fields. '},{'text':'The intensity of the reflection of ultrasound waves that are detected by a transducer will depend on: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The amplification process that is applied. ','optionB':'The difference in the acoustic properties of the tissues, the intervening tissue and the angle of the boundary. ','optionC':'The acoustics of the room the procedure is carried out in. ','optionD':'The quality of the transducer. '},{'text':'A major advantage of ultrasound imaging is: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'It has a better success rate of diagnosis. ','optionB':'The ability to image internal organs such as the lungs. ','optionC':'It is non-intrusive or doesnt involve ionising radiation. ','optionD':'It is cheap and quick. '},{'text':'Disadvantages of ultrasound include: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Intrusive procedure. ','optionB':'Difficult to interpret compared to an X-ray, bone and air make imaging difficult. ','optionC':'Expensive to have done. ','optionD':'Uses ionising radiation and therefore is limited in its use. '},{'text':'Ultrasound transducers use piezoelectric crystals. When a voltage is placed across the crystal: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Sparks are created that are converted to form an image ','optionB':'It vibrates. ','optionC':'A sound is made. ','optionD':'The size alters slightly and sets up a sound wave. '},{'text':'The size of the object that can be imaged is determined by: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The size of the ultrasound machine. ','optionB':'Frequency. Only a select range can be used. ','optionC':'Wavelength. If the object is greater than the wavelength the diffraction becomes significant and no reflection of the wave occurs ','optionD':'Wavelength. If the object is less than the wavelength the diffraction becomes significant and no reflection of the wave occurs. '},{'text':'Acoustic impedance is: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'A property that describes how easily a specific frequency will pass through a material. ','optionB':'Limited ability to hear. ','optionC':'The ability to interfere with other sounds in the area. ','optionD':'A property that describes the ability to stop sound waves. '},{'text':'Calculate the acoustic impedance of fat. Given: fat density = 920 kgm^-3 and the velocity = 1450 ms^-1. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'7.5 10-7 ','optionB':'1.33 106 ','optionC':'4 106 ','optionD':'1.3 10-5 '},{'text':'Calculate the percentage of ultrasound energy reflected at a boundary of blood and muscle. Given: Iblood = 1.66 10^6, Imuscle = 1.65 10^6. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'9.13 10-6 percent ','optionB':'1 103 percent ','optionC':'9.13 10-4 percent ','optionD':'9 percent '},{'text':'A-mode scaning uses a single dimension transducer. It is best used in examining: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The foetus. ','optionB':'The flow of blood in the heart. ','optionC':'Midline structures in the brain. ','optionD':'Bone breaks. '},{'text':'B-mode scans or brightness scans are used: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'To produce a 2D image of the body such as a foetus. ','optionB':'Examining midline structures in the brain. ','optionC':'To examine bone breaks. ','optionD':'To examine the brain. '},{'text':'Doppler ultrasound imaging is used to image parts of the body that: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Pulsate or move ','optionB':'Are encased in bone ','optionC':'Show high contrast with a dye ','optionD':'Are broken'},]


uniform_motion_quiz_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Select the correct statement: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'SUVAT equations are used when an object has changing acceleration ','optionB':'SUVAT equations are used when an object has a constant velocity and a non-zero acceleration ','optionC':'SUVAT equations are used when there is constant acceleration ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'The term SUVAT refers to 5 quantities: s, u, v, a, and t. Identify s from below. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'s is the speed ','optionB':'s is the distance ','optionC':'s is the displacement ','optionD':'s is the velocity '},{'text':'The term SUVAT refers to 5 quantities: s, u, v, a, and t. Identify the correct statement: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'u is the initial speed and v is the final speed ','optionB':'u is the final speed and v is the initial speed ','optionC':'u is the final velocity and v is the initial velocity ','optionD':'u is the initial velocity and v is the final velocity '},{'text':'Select the option that contains the correct SUVAT quantities and units ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'s = displacement (m), u = final velocity (m s^-2), v = initial velocity (m s^-2), a = acceleration (m s^-2) and t = time (s) ','optionB':'s = displacement (m), u = initial velocity (m s^-1), v = final velocity (m s^-1), a = acceleration (m s^-2) and t = time (s) ','optionC':'s = distance (m), u = final velocity (m s^-1), v = initial velocity (m s^-1), a = acceleration (m s^-1) and t = time (s) ','optionD':'s = distance (m), u = initial velocity (m s^-1), v = final velocity (m s^-1), a = acceleration (m s^-2) and t = time (s) '},{'text':'Select the correct set of SUVAT equations: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'v = u - at; s = ut + 1/2at^2; s = ½(u - v)t; v^2 = u^2 + 2as ','optionB':'v = u + at; s = ut - 1/2at^2; s = ½(u + v)t; v^2 = u^2 - 2as ','optionC':'v = u - at; s = ut - 1/2at^2; s = ½(u + v)t; v^2 = u^2 + 2as ','optionD':'v = u + at; s = ut + 1/2at^2; s = ½(u + v)t; v^2 = u^2 + 2as '},{'text':'Only one of the below is a SUVAT equation. Which one? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'u = v + at ','optionB':'v = u - at ','optionC':'s = u + at ','optionD':'v = u + at '},{'text':'Only one of the below is a SUVAT equation. Which one? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'s = ut - 1/2at^2 ','optionB':'v = ut + 1/2at^2 ','optionC':'s = ut + 1/2at^2 ','optionD':'v = ut - 1/2at^2 '},{'text':'Only one of the below is a SUVAT equation. Which one? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'a = ½(u - v)t ','optionB':'s = ½(u + v)t ','optionC':'a = ½(u + v)t ','optionD':'s = ½(u - v)t '},{'text':'Only one of the below is a SUVAT equation. Which one? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'v^2 = u^2 - 2as ','optionB':'u^2 = ^v2 + 2as ','optionC':'v^2 = u^2 + 2as ','optionD':'u^2 = v^2 - 2ts '},{'text':'Select the correct set of SUVAT equations: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'v = u - at; s = ut + 1/2at^2; s = ½(u - v)t; v^2 = u^2 + 2as ','optionB':'v = u + at; s = ut - 1/2at^2; s = ½(u + v)t; v^2 = u^2 - 2as ','optionC':'v = u - at; s = ut - 1/2at^2; s = ½(u + v)t; v^2 = u^2 + 2as ','optionD':'v = u + at; s = ut + 1/2at^2; s = ½(u + v)t; v^2 = u^2 + 2as '},{'text':'What are the two SUVAT equations for calculating displacement? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'s = 1/2(u-v)t and s = ut - 1/2at^2 ','optionB':'s = 1/2(u+v)t and s = ut + 1/2at^2 ','optionC':'s = 1/2(u+v)t^2 and s = ut - 1/2at^2 ','optionD':'s = 1/2(u+v)t and s = ut^2 + 1/2at^2 '},{'text':'What are the two SUVAT equations for calculating the final velocity, v? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'v^2 = u - at and v = u^2 - 2as ','optionB':'v = u + at and v^2 = u^2 - 2as ','optionC':'v = u + at and v^2 = u^2 + 2as ','optionD':'v = u - at and v^2 = u^2 + 2as'},]


units_and_prefixes_quiz_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Physicists often refer to SI units. Identify what the abbreviation SI stands for. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'International System of Units ','optionB':'System of Incidences ','optionC':'Standard Indices ','optionD':'Standard Units '},{'text':'The International System of Units, or SI units, have a number of base units, from which all other units can be built. How many SI base units are there? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'6 ','optionB':'7 T ','optionC':'8 ','optionD':'9 '},{'text':'State the letter of the row that contains all of the SI base units. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Ampere, seconds, metre, kilogram, watts, mole, candela ','optionB':'Pascals, seconds, metre, kilogram, newtons, mole, candela ','optionC':'Watts, seconds, metre, kilogram, pascals, mole, candela ','optionD':'Ampere, second, metre, kilogram, kelvin, mole, candela T '},{'text':'Physicists write units in a couple of different ways. One way of writing the units of speed — metres per second — is m/s. But which of the following is the preferred way of writing the units of speed? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'m s^-2 ','optionB':'m s^1 ','optionC':'m s^-1 ','optionD':'m s^2 '},{'text':'Select the correct way to write J/s (Joules per Second) ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'J s^-1 ','optionB':'J s^-2 ','optionC':'J s^1 ','optionD':'J s^2 '},{'text':'Select the correct way to write m/s2 (metres per second squared) ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'m s^-2 ','optionB':'m s^1 ','optionC':'m s^-1 ','optionD':'m s^2 '},{'text':'Identify what SI derived units are: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'SI derived units are units derived from calculus ','optionB':'SI derived units are units concerning length, time and mass only ','optionC':'SI derived units are units concerning time and mass only ','optionD':'SI derived units are units made up of SI base units T '},{'text':'Harry says that there is no difference between using capitalised or uncapitalised letters when expressing quantities in physics. For example, he thinks that we can express speed = distance / time as both V = X / T and v = x/t. Is harry correct ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'T ','optionB':'F ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'State the prefixes that represent the following: 10^-6 ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'centi © ','optionB':'milli (m) ','optionC':'micro (u) ','optionD':'mega (M) '},{'text':'State the prefixes that represent the following: 10^-9 ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'mega (M) ','optionB':'micro (u) ','optionC':'nano (n) ','optionD':'milli (m) '},{'text':'State the prefixes that represent the following: 10^9 ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'mega (M) ','optionB':'micro (u) ','optionC':'giga (G) ','optionD':'kilo (k) '},{'text':'State the prefixes that represent the following: 10^6 ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'mega (M) ','optionB':'micro (u) ','optionC':'giga (G) ','optionD':'kilo (k) '},{'text':'centi (c) means ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'10^-3 ','optionB':'10^100 ','optionC':'10^-2 ','optionD':'10^2 '},{'text':'pico (p) means ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'10^9 ','optionB':'10^6 ','optionC':'10^-9 ','optionD':'10^-12 '},{'text':'milli (m) means ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'10^-3 ','optionB':'10^-6 ','optionC':'10^-2 ','optionD':'10^6'},]


vectors_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'A woman attempts to swim across a river at a speed of 0.5 m/s moving perpendicularly to the current which itself is moving at 1.2m/s. What is her resultant speed? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.5m/s ','optionB':'1.2m/s ','optionC':'1.3m/s T ','optionD':'0.5m/s '},{'text':'Which of these is a scalar? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Velocity ','optionB':'Distance T ','optionC':'Displacement ','optionD':'Force '},{'text':'A woman attempts to swim across a river at a speed of 0.5 m/s moving perpendicularly to the current which itself is moving at 1.2m/s. The river is 40m wide. How far down the river will the woman be once she reaches the other side? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'57m ','optionB':'39m ','optionC':'96m T ','optionD':'43m '},{'text':'A woman attempts to swim across a river at a speed of 0.5 m/s moving perpendicularly to the current which itself is moving at 1.2m/s. In what direction does the swimmer travel whilst in the water? (angle from river bank) ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'15.3 degrees ','optionB':'33.7 degrees ','optionC':'22.6 degrees T ','optionD':'45 degrees'},]


wave_mechanics_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'The critical angle of a transparent material is 35 degrees at the boundary between it and a vacuum. What is the materials refractive index? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.8 ','optionB':'1.9 ','optionC':'1.7 T ','optionD':'1.6 '},{'text':'What is the amplitude of a wave ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Height between a peak and a trough ','optionB':'Number of waves per second ','optionC':'Maximum displacement T ','optionD':'Length of wave '},{'text':'What happens to light when the critical angle of a boundary is reached? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Total internal refraction ','optionB':'Total internal interference ','optionC':'Total internal reflection T ','optionD':'Total internal absorption '},{'text':'How do points that are in phase interfere with each other? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Cancel each other out ','optionB':'Pass through each other without any interference ','optionC':'Destructively ','optionD':'Constructively '},{'text':'A stationary wave is set up on a string of length 2m. The frequency of oscillation from the source is 5Hz. If the wavelength is 0.5m what harmonic is the system showing? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'5th ','optionB':'4th ','optionC':'6th ','optionD':'8th T '},{'text':'What is the relative refractive index between water (n=1.3) and glass (n=1.5)? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.3 ','optionB':'1.22 ','optionC':'1.06 ','optionD':'1.15 '},{'text':'Light enters a material of unknown refractive index from air. The angles of incidence and refraction are measured to be 30 and 25 degrees respectively. Find the refractive index of this material ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.26 ','optionB':'1.18 ','optionC':'0.85 ','optionD':'1.09 '},{'text':'A radio wave has a wavelength of 130m. What is its frequency? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2.5MHz ','optionB':'2.3MHz ','optionC':'2.7MHz ','optionD':'2.1MHz '},{'text':'Visible light, of wavelength 400nm, is shone from a monochromatic source through two slits and onto a screen. The slits are spaced at 0.5mm away from each other and the observed distance between each fringe is 5mm. What is the distance to the screen? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'7.25m ','optionB':'6.25m ','optionC':'4.25m ','optionD':'5.25m '},{'text':'Which one of these is a condition for double slit interference patterns to exist? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The slits have to be narrow enough ','optionB':'The light has to have a large enough intensity ','optionC':'The light has to have a small enough intensity ','optionD':'The slits have to be wide enough '},{'text':'What type of electromagnetic wave can be used in heat detectors and remote controls? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Visible light ','optionB':'Infrared ','optionC':'Microwaves ','optionD':'Ultraviolet '},{'text':'A diffraction grating has line spacing of 500 lines per millimetre. What is the distance between two adjacent slits? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1x10^-6m ','optionB':'2x10^-6m T ','optionC':'4x10^-6m ','optionD':'5x10^-6m '},{'text':'A wave has a period of 5 seconds. If the wave travels 100m in 4 seconds what is its wavelength? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'150m ','optionB':'175m ','optionC':'100m ','optionD':'125m '},{'text':'Which of these does not represent the wavelength of a wave? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The distance between two consecutive peaks ','optionB':'The distance between a peak and a consecutive trough (in the x-direction) ','optionC':'the distance between two consecutive points that are in phase ','optionD':'the distance between two consecutive troughs '},{'text':'In a longitudinal wave what is the region between two compressions called? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Refraction ','optionB':'Rarefaction ','optionC':'Extension ','optionD':'Decompression '},{'text':'What type of electromagnetic wave would not be polarised when passing through a polarising filter? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Ultraviolet ','optionB':'Gamma ray ','optionC':'Visible light ','optionD':'Infrared '},{'text':'15 water waves arrive at a beach in 1 minute. What is the frequency of the water waves? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.5Hz ','optionB':'4Hz ','optionC':'0.25Hz T ','optionD':'15Hz '},{'text':'What type of light would be used in a sunbed? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Gamma-rays ','optionB':'Visible light ','optionC':'Ultraviolet ','optionD':'Infrared '},{'text':'Ripples pass through a wall with two slits in, at 5cm distance from each other. They have a wavelength of 1cm. If an imaginary line is draw at 10m from the wall what will the distance between neighbouring maxima on the line be? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'0.5m ','optionB':'1m ','optionC':'0.25m ','optionD':'2m '},{'text':'Which of the following is the correct definition of a node in a stationary wave? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Where the amplitude of oscillation is at a maximum ','optionB':'Where the amplitude of oscillation is zero T ','optionC':'? ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'What happens at the boundary from water (n=1.3) into air when the light ray arrives at 45 degrees to the normal on the water side? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Angle of refraction = 84.1 degrees ','optionB':'Angle of reflection = 50 degrees ','optionC':'Angle of refraction = 66.8 degrees T ','optionD':'Angle of reflection = 45 degrees '},{'text':'What happens at the boundary from glass (n=1.5) into water (n=1.3) when the light ray arrives at 80 degrees to the normal on the glass side? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Angle of reflection = 60 degrees ','optionB':'Angle of refraction = 85 degrees ','optionC':'Angle of refraction = 87 degrees ','optionD':'Angle of reflection = 80 degrees T '},{'text':'Find the angle (in degrees) at which the first order fringe is emitted from a diffraction grating of 400 lines per millimetre, using red light of wavelength 700nm. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'17.2 ','optionB':'18.5 ','optionC':'15.1 ','optionD':'16.3 T '},{'text':'What is the minimum number of polarising filters needed so that no light from an unpolarised source is allowed through? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'4 ','optionB':'1 ','optionC':'2 T ','optionD':'3 '},{'text':'A wave has a period of 5 seconds. If the wave travels 100m in 4 seconds what is its wavelength? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'175m ','optionB':'125m T ','optionC':'150m ','optionD':'100m '},{'text':'What is meant by a monochromatic source? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Single amplitude emitted ','optionB':'Many amplitudes emitted ','optionC':'Single wavelength emitted T ','optionD':'Many wavelengths emitted '},{'text':'15 water waves arrive at a beach in 1 minute. What is the period of these waves? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'15s ','optionB':'4s T ','optionC':'0.25s ','optionD':'2s '},{'text':'What is the unit of phase difference? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Metres ','optionB':'Hertz ','optionC':'Radians T ','optionD':'Seconds '},{'text':'A stationary wave is created using a microwave transmitter and a metal plate off which microwaves can reflect. A microwave meter is moved along the stationary wave and measures 3 places where no microwave vibrations are detected. What harmonic stationary wave is being observed? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'4 T ','optionB':'5 ','optionC':'3 ','optionD':'6 '},{'text':'Why can a microscope see in more detail using blue light rather than red light? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Larger frequency so more photons arriving at the eye per unit time ','optionB':'Smaller wavelength so less diffraction T ','optionC':'The eye diffracts blue light better than red light ','optionD':'Lower amounts of refraction in the microscope lense '},{'text':'How can light be partially polarised? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Reflection T ','optionB':'Passing through water ','optionC':'Refraction ','optionD':'Diffraction '},{'text':'What is the most accurate description of the design of an optical fibre? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Glass surrounded by glass of lower refractive index T ','optionB':'High refractive index glass in a thin fibre ','optionC':'Low refractive index glass surrounded by high refractive index glass ','optionD':'Glass surrounded by a reflective metal surface '},{'text':'A string on a guitar is attached at both ends to the instrument but allowed to move freely at every other point. The string is plucked, and oscillates with a maximum amplitude in the middle of the string, decreasing uniformly in amplitude to zero at each end. Which mode of oscillation of the string has been excited? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The harmonic mode ','optionB':'The basic mode ','optionC':'The zeroth mode ','optionD':'The fundamental mode T '},{'text':'A light ray passes from glass (n=1.5) into water (n=1.3). The ray hits the surface at 50 degrees from the normal. What is the angle of refraction in degrees? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'59.6 ','optionB':'68.7 ','optionC':'62.1 T ','optionD':'65.4 '},{'text':'Longitudinal and transverse waves can both be polarised. Is this statement true or false. If it is false, why? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'False - only transverse waves can be polarised T ','optionB':'False - Neither types of wave can be polarised ','optionC':'The statement is true ','optionD':'False - only longitudinal waves can be polarised '},{'text':'What happens at the boundary from water (n=1.3) into air when the light ray arrives at 45 degrees to the normal on the water side? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Angle of refraction = 66.8 degrees T ','optionB':'Angle of reflection = 45 degrees ','optionC':'Angle of refraction = 84.1 degrees ','optionD':'Angle of reflection = 50 degrees '},{'text':'A rope forms a stationary wave. What is the phase difference between a point near the first anti-node and a particle near the second? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2pi ','optionB':'pi T ','optionC':'pi/2 ','optionD':'? '},{'text':'What is meant by coherent waves? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Waves of constant phase difference T ','optionB':'Waves of the same speed ','optionC':'Waves of the same wavelength ','optionD':'Waves from the same source '},{'text':'What path difference would give destructive interference? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'(1/2) n lambda ','optionB':'(3/2) n lambda ','optionC':'(1/2) lambda + n lambda T ','optionD':'(n/2) lambda + 1 '},{'text':'Two waves cross over at a point. One has a displacement 2cm and the other has a displacement -5.5cm. What is the displacement at the point where the two waves meet? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'displacement = 2.5 cm ','optionB':'displacement = -2.5 cm ','optionC':'displacement = -3.5 cm ','optionD':'displacement = 3.5 cm '},{'text':'A glass block has refractive index 1.5. At what speed does light travel through the glass? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'3x10^8 m/s ','optionB':'1.5x10^8 m/s ','optionC':'1x108 m/s ','optionD':'2x10^8 m/s T '},{'text':'When two continuous similar waves are travelling in opposite directions, they can superpose to form what kind of wave? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Progressive wave ','optionB':'Conservative wave ','optionC':'Travelling wave ','optionD':'Stationary wave '},{'text':'Diamond has a very high refractive index of 2.4. What is the velocity of visible light in diamond? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'3x10^8 m/s ','optionB':'2.4x10^8 m/s ','optionC':'2.25x10^8 m/s ','optionD':'1.25x10^8 m/s T '},{'text':'A stationary wave is set up on a string of length 2m. The frequency of oscillation from the source is 5Hz. The wavelength is 0.5m. What is the speed of the wave? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'2.5 m/s T ','optionB':'10 m/s ','optionC':'2 m/s ','optionD':'5 m/s '},{'text':'If light passes from a less dense medium into a denser medium what will happen at the boundary between the two mediums? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The light bends away from the normal at the surface ','optionB':'The light is unaffected as it passes through the boundary ','optionC':'The light is totally internally reflected ','optionD':'The light bends towards the normal at the surface T '},{'text':'Which one of these is a condition for double slit interference patterns to exist? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The light has to have a small enough intensity ','optionB':'The slits have to be wide enough ','optionC':' The slits have to be narrow enough t ','optionD':'The light has to have a large enough intensity '},{'text':'Water waves travel through a gap in a barrier and are diffracted. To increase the amount of diffraction what would you do? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Decrease the gap, decrease the wavelength ','optionB':'Increase the gap, increase the wavelength ','optionC':'Decrease the gap, increase the wavelength T ','optionD':'Increase the gap, decrease the wavelength '},{'text':'What is the path difference needed for light from adjacent slits of a diffraction grating to interfere constructively? (n is an integer) ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'(1/2) lambda + n lambda ','optionB':'n lambda T ','optionC':'lambda + (n/2) lambda ','optionD':'(n/2) lambda '},{'text':'A stationary wave is set up on a string of length 2m. The frequency of oscillation from the source is 5Hz. The wavelength is 0.5m. What is the speed of the wave? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'5m/s ','optionB':'2m/s ','optionC':'10m/s ','optionD':'2.5m/s T '},{'text':'Which one of these waves is longitudinal? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Water Waves ','optionB':'Light ','optionC':'Seismic S Waves ','optionD':'Sound T '},{'text':'For a stationary wave on a string having a longer string does what to the sound created from the stationary wave? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Lower notes are produced T ','optionB':'Louder sound is produced ','optionC':'Quieter sound is produced ','optionD':'Higher notes are produced '},{'text':'At what angle (degrees) should the same two polarising filters be at in order to stop any light from passing through? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'90 T ','optionB':'45 ','optionC':'180 ','optionD':'0 '},{'text':'State the diffraction grating formula. (d is the distance between slits and n is the order of the fringe.) ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'(d/2) sin (theta) = n lambda ','optionB':'n lambda sin (theta) = d ','optionC':'lambda sin (theta) = nd ','optionD':'d sin (theta) = n lambda '},{'text':'Which these is an example where polarised waves are used? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Sound from a TV or Radio ','optionB':'Radio signal T ','optionC':'Images on a TV ','optionD':'Light bulb light '},{'text':'Identify one of the uses of a diffraction grating. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Observing spectral lines of distant stars T ','optionB':'Measuring the speed of light for different wavelengths ','optionC':'Television screens ','optionD':'Proving the particle nature of light '},{'text':'Two waves meet at a point. How do you find the shape of the combined waves at that point? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Take one amplitude away from another ','optionB':'Sum their displacements T ','optionC':'Sum their amplitudes ','optionD':'Take one displacement away from the other '},{'text':'Laser light is.. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Coherent but not monochromatic ','optionB':'Coherent and monochromatic T ','optionC':'Not monochromatic and not coherent ','optionD':'Monochromatic but not coherent '},{'text':'Light arrives at the boundary from air to glass (n=1.5) at an angle of incidence of 55 degrees. Through what angle in degrees is the light ray bent in the process of refraction at the boundary? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'12 ','optionB':'22 ','optionC':'25 ','optionD':'33 T'},]


waves_quiz_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'You can hear a car horn around the corner of a building but not see the car because ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'light reflection is incoherent from the other building but the sound reflection is coherent ','optionB':'the sound travel slowly, but light travels very fast ','optionC':'sound waves diffract around a corner but the light wavelengths do not diffract too much ','optionD':'sound waves pass through the walls, but light reflects off the wall '},{'text':'Constructive interference results in a wave whose amplitude is __________ any of the contributing waves. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'larger than ','optionB':'smaller than ','optionC':'same size as ','optionD':'double '},{'text':'According to the principle of superposition, displacement caused by combining two waves is equal to the ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'average amplitude of the contributing waves ','optionB':'amplitude of the larger wave ','optionC':'equilibrium position ','optionD':'sum of the amplitudes of contributing waves '},{'text':'When two waves are in phase, ____________ interference will occur. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'constructive ','optionB':'destructive ','optionC':'no ','optionD':'little '},{'text':'In transverse waves, the motion of the particles is, ____________ to the direction of propogation of the wave. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'parallel ','optionB':'perpendicular ','optionC':'opposite ','optionD':'tangential '},{'text':'Which type of wave DOES NOT requie a medium to propagate? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'surface waves ','optionB':'transverse waves ','optionC':'electromagnetic waves ','optionD':'longitudinal waves '},{'text':'In longitudinal waves, the motion of the particles is ____________ to the direction of propogation of the wave. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'parallel ','optionB':'perpendicular ','optionC':'opposite ','optionD':'tangential '},{'text':'Which of the following is propagated by waves: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'matter ','optionB':'energy ','optionC':'both matter and energy ','optionD':'none of the above '},{'text':'The horizontal distance between successive crests of a wave is ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'frequency ','optionB':'amplitude ','optionC':'period ','optionD':'wavelength '},{'text':'The highest point in a wave is ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'crest ','optionB':'trough ','optionC':'frequency ','optionD':'wavelength '},{'text':'The maximum displacement from the mediums equilibrium position is called ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'frequency ','optionB':'amplitude ','optionC':'period ','optionD':'wavelength '},{'text':'The time it takes two successive crests to pass the same place is is called ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'frequency ','optionB':'amplitude ','optionC':'period ','optionD':'wavelength '},{'text':'When particles in the medium vibrate to and fro in the same direction of energy transport, then the wave is ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'longitudinal ','optionB':'standing ','optionC':'torsional ','optionD':'transverse '},{'text':'When particles in the medium vibrate at right angles to the direction of energy transport, then the wave is ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'longitudinal ','optionB':'standing ','optionC':'torsional ','optionD':'transverse '},{'text':'A sound wave is ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'a transverse wave ','optionB':'a longitudinal wave ','optionC':'an electromagnetic wave ','optionD':'torsional wave '},{'text':'Two loudspeakers 5m apart emit the same tone of wavelength 0.5m. A listener stands at X, 12m from the right speaker and then moves to Y which is also 12m in front of the left speaker. She would hear ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Maximum at X, Maximum at Y ','optionB':'Maximum at X, Minimum at Y ','optionC':'Minimum at X, Minimum at Y ','optionD':'Minimum at X, Maximum at Y '},]


wiens_and_stefans_law_quiz_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Identify the correct requirement for an object to emit electromagnetic radiation. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The temperature must be above zero kelvin T ','optionB':'The temperature must be above zero degree celsius ','optionC':'The temperature must be above 273 kelvin ','optionD':'The temperature must be above 273 degree celsius '},{'text':'Identify the correct relationship between the peak wavelength and Kelvin temperature ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'lambda max is proportional to T ','optionB':'lambda max is proportional to 1/T T ','optionC':'lambda max is proportional to 1/T^2 ','optionD':'lambda max is proportional to T^2 '},{'text':'Identify the correct definition of Wiens Law. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'lambda_max . T = constant T ','optionB':'lambda_max / T = constant ','optionC':'lambda_max . T^2 = constant ','optionD':'lambda_max / T^2 = constant '},{'text':'Identify the correct statement about the electromagnetic radiation emitted by objects of different temperature. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The lower the temperature of an object, the lower the peak wavelength of emitted electromagnetic radiation. ','optionB':'The higher the temperature of an object, the lower the peak wavelength of emitted electromagnetic radiation. T ','optionC':'The temperature of objects does not affect the peak wavelength of the emitted electromagnetic radiation and all objects emit radiation of high peak wavelengths. ','optionD':'The temperature of objects does not affect the peak wavelength of the emitted electromagnetic radiation and all objects emit radiation of low peak wavelengths. '},{'text':'Which describes the typical axes of a blackbody radiation curve ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'x-axis: wavelength; y-axis: intensity T ','optionB':'x-axis: intensity; y-axis: wavelength ','optionC':'x-axis: temperature; y-axis: frequency ','optionD':'x-axis: frequency; y-axis: temperature '},{'text':'As the temperature of a blackbody increases the shape of the blackbody curve will also change. Identify the correct changes to the blackbody curve as temperature increases. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Higher temperatures cause the peak of in the intensity-wavelength curve to become wider and the value of the peak wavelength to reduce. ','optionB':'Higher temperatures cause the peak of in the intensity-wavelength curve to become sharper and the value of the peak wavelength to reduce. T ','optionC':'Higher temperatures cause the peak of in the intensity-wavelength curve to become wider and the value of the peak wavelength to increase. ','optionD':'Higher temperatures cause the peak of in the intensity-wavelength curve to become sharper and the value of the peak wavelength to increase. '},{'text':'Identify the correct definition of luminosity. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'the total radiant power output of a star per unit area ','optionB':'the total radiant power output of a star T ','optionC':'the total radiant power output of a star per unit time ','optionD':'the total radiant power output of a star per unit per unit area '},{'text':'Stefans Law for the luminosity of star of radius r and surface temperature T is given by: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'L = 4.pi.r.sigma.T^2 ','optionB':'L = 4.pi.r^2.sigma.T^2 ','optionC':'L = 4.pi.r^4.sigma.T^2 ','optionD':'L = 4.pi.r^2.sigma.T^4 T '},{'text':'What would happen to the luminosity of a star if we doubled the surface area (keeping the temperature the same)? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The luminosity would halve ','optionB':'The luminosity would double T ','optionC':'The luminosity would be squared ','optionD':'The luminosity would increase to the power of 4 '},{'text':'What would happen to the luminosity per unit surface area if the temperature of a star halved ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The luminosity per unit surface area would decrease by a factor of 4 ','optionB':'The luminosity per unit surface area would decrease by a factor of 8 ','optionC':'The luminosity per unit surface area would decrease by a factor of 16 T ','optionD':'The luminosity per unit surface area would increase by a factor of 32'},]


work_and_energy_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'What does the area under a force-displacement graph represent? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Power Dissipated ','optionB':'Work Done T ','optionC':'Velocity ','optionD':'Energy of the System '},{'text':'A car, of mass 1300kg, accelerates uniformly from 5m/s to 14m/s. What is its change in kinetic energy? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'111kJ T ','optionB':'53.7kJ ','optionC':'5.85kJ ','optionD':'84.3kJ '},{'text':'Kinetic energy is ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'mv^2 ','optionB':'mv ','optionC':'(1/2)mv ','optionD':'(1/2)mv^2 '},{'text':'A dam holds a mass of 4x10^9kg a height of 125m above a hydroelectric power station. If the water flows at a rate of 4x10^5 litres per second, what is the velocity of the water when it reaches the station? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'56.7m/s ','optionB':'53.1m/s ','optionC':'49.5m/s T ','optionD':'44.5m/s '},{'text':'A man walks at 0.5m/s to his destination 4km away. The total force resisting his motion (air-resistance, friction etc) is 40N. What is the total work done by the man in reaching his destination? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'160kJ T ','optionB':'120kJ ','optionC':'80kJ ','optionD':'200kJ '},{'text':'A man walks at 0.5m/s to his destination 4km away. The total force resisting his motion (air-resistance, friction etc) is 40N. What is the mans power? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'28W ','optionB':'16W ','optionC':'24W ','optionD':'20W '},{'text':'A cars engine provides a driving force of 500N and is 90 percent efficient. What is the total energy released by burning of petrol in 5 minutes of driving at 8m/s? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'3.89MJ ','optionB':'2.68MJ ','optionC':'4.21MJ ','optionD':'1.33MJ T '},{'text':'What is the work done in lifting a 1kg book a height of 1m onto a shelf? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'10J ','optionB':'1J ','optionC':'9.81J ','optionD':'2J '},{'text':'A bungee jumper of mass 60kg jumps from a bridge and falls 20m before the rope goes tight. How much gravitational potential energy does she lose? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'10.6kJ ','optionB':'11.8kJ T ','optionC':'10.3kJ ','optionD':'11.4kJ '},{'text':'A pendulum, made up of a light string, of length 50cm, with a 2kg bob at the end, is pulled aside so that the string makes an angle of 30 degrees to the vertical. The pendulum is released. Ignoring air-resistance find the velocity of the bob at the bottom of its swing ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'1.31m/s ','optionB':'1.15m/s T ','optionC':'1.09m/s ','optionD':'1.23m/s '},{'text':'What is the formula for a change in gravitational potential energy for a small height (h)? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'(1/2)mgh^2 ','optionB':'mgh T ','optionC':'mgh^2 ','optionD':'(1/2)mgh '},{'text':'A bullet, of mass 0.25kg, is shot in the air at an initial velocity of 50m/s. If there is a constant resistive force of 5N what height does the bullet reach? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'41.9m T ','optionB':'63.5m ','optionC':'72.6m ','optionD':'57.4m '},{'text':'A ball of mass 0.5kg is falling down some stairs which have a height of 10m and length 25m. What is the work done by gravity on the ball? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'46.9J ','optionB':'47.5J ','optionC':'49.1J T ','optionD':'53.6J '},{'text':'A car, of mass 1,300Kg, accelerates uniformly from 5m/s to 14m/s. The resistive forces on the car can be ignored. It takes the car 8 seconds to complete this acceleration. What is the average power provided by the engine? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'13.9kW T ','optionB':'26.7kW ','optionC':'9.36kW ','optionD':'17.1kW '},{'text':'A ball of mass 2kg falls for 30m in the earths atmosphere. What is the work done by gravity on the ball? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'238J ','optionB':'155J ','optionC':'371J ','optionD':'589J T'},]


x_ray_attenuation_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'What does attenuation means with respect to electromagnetic radiation? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The increase in intensity of electromagnetic radiation as it travels through matter or space ','optionB':'The decrease in intensity of electromagnetic radiation as it travels through matter or space T ','optionC':'The exponential increase in intensity of electromagnetic radiation as it travels through matter or space ','optionD':'The linear decrease in intensity of electromagnetic radiation as it travels through matter or space '},{'text':'There are 4 main causes of x-ray attenuation. The first is simple scattering. Select another: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Photoelectric effect T ','optionB':'Diffusion ','optionC':'Diffraction ','optionD':'Feynman scattering '},{'text':'There are 4 main causes of x-ray attenuation. The first is simple scattering. Select another: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Compton scattering T ','optionB':'Diffraction ','optionC':'Feynman scattering ','optionD':'Complex scattering '},{'text':'There are 4 main causes of x-ray attenuation. The first is simple scattering. Select another: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Complex scattering ','optionB':'Diffraction ','optionC':'Feynman scattering ','optionD':'Pair production T '},{'text':'Simple scattering is best described by: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'An X-ray photon removes an electron from an atom and is scattered with reduced energy. ','optionB':'An X-ray photon interacts with the nucleus of an atom, disappears and creates an electron and a positron. ','optionC':'An X-ray photon interacts with an electron in an atom, but lacks sufficient energy to remove the electron, and scatters with no change in energy. ','optionD':'An X-ray photon is absorbed by an electron in an atom, and the electron is ejected from the atom. '},{'text':'The photoelectric effect is best described by: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'An X-ray photon removes an electron from an atom and is scattered with reduced energy. ','optionB':'An X-ray photon interacts with the nucleus of an atom, disappears and creates an electron and a positron. ','optionC':'An X-ray photon interacts with an electron in an atom, but lacks sufficient energy to remove the electron, and scatters with no change in energy. ','optionD':'An X-ray photon is absorbed by an electron in an atom, and the electron is ejected from the atom. '},{'text':'Compton scattering is best described by: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'An X-ray photon removes an electron from an atom and is scattered with reduced energy. ','optionB':'An X-ray photon interacts with the nucleus of an atom, disappears and creates an electron and a positron. ','optionC':'An X-ray photon interacts with an electron in an atom, but lacks sufficient energy to remove the electron, and scatters with no change in energy. ','optionD':'An X-ray photon is absorbed by an electron in an atom, and the electron is ejected from the atom. '},{'text':'Pair production is best described by: ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'An X-ray photon removes an electron from an atom and is scattered with reduced energy. ','optionB':'An X-ray photon interacts with the nucleus of an atom, disappears and creates an electron and a positron. ','optionC':'An X-ray photon interacts with an electron in an atom, but lacks sufficient energy to remove the electron, and scatters with no change in energy. ','optionD':'An X-ray photon is absorbed by an electron in an atom, and the electron is ejected from the atom. '},{'text':'Which of the following shows Einsteins photoelectric equation? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'hc = phi + KEmax ','optionB':'hf = phi - Kemax ','optionC':'hf = Kemax - phi ','optionD':'hf = phi + Kemax T '},{'text':'Which of the following does not effect the attenuation of x-rays ? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':' The intensity of the X-rays ','optionB':'The type of material they are travelling through ','optionC':'The thickness of the material ','optionD':'The speed of the X-rays T '},{'text':'Which of the following are often used in contrast media? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Lithium (Z = 3) ','optionB':'Beryllium (Z = 4) ','optionC':'Barium (Z = 56) T ','optionD':'Potassium (Z = 19)'},]


x_ray_production_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'What is thermionic emission? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The process of emitting x-rays from a metal ','optionB':'The process of emitting electrons from a material when it is heated T ','optionC':'The process of accelerating charged particles using a potential difference ','optionD':'The process of heating a material when it is struck by electrons '},{'text':'What happens when the electrons strike the anode? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The electrons are absorbed ','optionB':'X-rays are emitted and negligible heating to the anode occurs ','optionC':'X-rays are emitted and the anode heats up T ','optionD':'X-rays are emitted and the anode cools down '},{'text':'What is the shield around the inside of the x-ray tube made of? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Aluminium ','optionB':'Glass ','optionC':'Tungsten ','optionD':'Lead T '},{'text':'What is the anode made of? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Aluminium ','optionB':'Glass ','optionC':'Tungsten T ','optionD':'Lead '},{'text':'Which of the following expressions shows that the maximum energy of an x-ray photon of frequency f is the same as the maximum kinetic energy of the electron, charge q? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'hf = qV T ','optionB':'h/f = q/V ','optionC':'hf = q/V ','optionD':'h/f = qV '},{'text':'Which of the following will occur when the tube current is increased (assuming a constant p.d.)? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The wavelength of the x-rays will decrease ','optionB':'The frequency of the x-rays will increase ','optionC':'The energy of the electrons will increase ','optionD':'The number of x-rays produced will increase T'},]


x_ray_scans_short_quiz.json

[{'text':'Which of the following are limitations of normal X-ray machines? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Obtaining images can be very slow ','optionB':'Unable to differentiate overlapping material T ','optionC':'Too large for many uses ','optionD':'Poor contrast for bone '},{'text':'Which of the following are limitations of normal X-ray machines? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Obtaining images can be very slow ','optionB':'Poor contrast for bone ','optionC':'Too large for many uses ','optionD':'Soft tissues are hard to image without the use of contrast agents T '},{'text':'What does CAT stand for? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'Computerised anatomical tomography ','optionB':'Cross-sectional anatomical tomography ','optionC':'Cross-sectional axial tomography ','optionD':'Computerised axial tomography T '},{'text':'What happens when the ring containing the X-ray tube and detector has rotated 360 degrees? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The scan is complete. ','optionB':'The ring moves about 1 cm, so that the next image slice can be obtained. ','optionC':'The patient must move themselves into a new position, so that the next image slice can be obtained. ','optionD':'The bed moves about 1 cm, so that the next image slice can be obtained. T '},{'text':'What happens when the X-rays are collected by the detector? ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'The detector sends signals to a computer, which produces a digital image from the detected X-rays. T ','optionB':'The detector sends a signal to the radiographer. ','optionC':'The detector produces an X-ray film which can be viewed by the radiographer. ','optionD':'The detector displays an image and sends the signals to a computer for storage. '},{'text':'Which of the following are advantages of using CAT scanning over traditional X-ray machines. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'CAT scans are quicker ','optionB':'CAT scanners can differentiate between soft tissues T ','optionC':'CAT scans deliver a lower dose of radiation to the patient ','optionD':'CAT scanners use shorter bursts of X-rays '},{'text':'Which of the following are advantages of using CAT scanning over traditional X-ray machines. ','image':'?','answer':'?','optionA':'CAT scans are quicker ','optionB':'CAT scans deliver much more data about the patient. T ','optionC':'CAT scans deliver a lower dose of radiation to the patient ','optionD':'CAT scanners use shorter bursts of X-rays'},]